Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypoparathyroidism is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by decreased levels of parathyroid hormone, leading to reduced calcium levels in the blood, which results in hypocalcemia. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypoparathyroidism does not typically lead to hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypernatremia. Hypercalcemia is more commonly associated with hyperparathyroidism, where there is excess secretion of parathyroid hormone.

2. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?

• A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement.
• B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policies.
• C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to introduce new policies aimed at preventing further safety events.
• D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it describes an effective method of communication where a unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement. This approach fosters open dialogue, provides constructive feedback, and promotes professional growth. Choice B is incorrect as it only involves the explanation of departmental policies without engaging in a two-way communication process. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on policy introduction after safety events rather than individual feedback. Choice D is incorrect as it involves discussing safety events with another manager and policy improvement, but it does not directly address individual performance feedback, which is essential for effective communication and professional development.

3. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

4. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following laboratory findings would be expected?

• A. Decreased blood glucose levels
• B. Decreased urine ketones
• C. Increased serum bicarbonate
• D. Increased anion gap

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), there is an excess of ketone bodies produced due to the breakdown of fatty acids for energy, leading to metabolic acidosis. An increased anion gap is a characteristic laboratory finding in DKA. The increased anion gap is a result of the accumulation of ketoacids and lactic acid in the blood, contributing to metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is an increased anion gap. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in DKA, blood glucose levels are typically elevated, urine ketones are increased due to the breakdown of fatty acids, and serum bicarbonate is usually decreased as it is consumed in an attempt to buffer the acidosis.

5. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

• A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
• B. Encouraging increased oral intake
• C. Restricting fluids
• D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention for a male client with SIADH is to restrict fluids. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Restricting fluids helps prevent further dilutional hyponatremia by reducing water intake. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly (choice A) would worsen the condition by adding more fluids, encouraging increased oral intake (choice B) is contraindicated as it adds more fluids, and administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids (choice D) is not a standard treatment for SIADH.

Similar Questions