HESI RN
Leadership and Management HESI
1. A client with Addison's disease is being educated about managing the condition during times of stress. The nurse should instruct the client to:
- A. Double the dose of corticosteroids during periods of stress.
- B. Skip the dose of corticosteroids if you feel well.
- C. Decrease fluid intake to prevent hypertension.
- D. Avoid physical activity during stressful times.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with Addison's disease should be educated to double their corticosteroid dosage during periods of stress. This is crucial to prevent adrenal crisis, as stress can increase the body's demand for cortisol. Skipping doses when feeling well can lead to an adrenal crisis if stress occurs suddenly. Decreasing fluid intake can exacerbate dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which are already concerns in Addison's disease. Avoiding physical activity during stressful times is not the most appropriate advice; moderate physical activity can be beneficial, as long as the client is adequately managing their corticosteroid regimen.
2. During the admission assessment of a terminally ill male client, he states that he is an agnostic. What is the best nursing action in response to this statement?
- A. Provide information about the hours and location of the chapel
- B. Document the statement in the client’s spiritual assessment
- C. Invite the client to a healing service for people of all religions
- D. Offer to contact a spiritual advisor of the client’s choice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Documenting the client's statement in the spiritual assessment is the best nursing action in response to his disclosure of being an agnostic. This respects the client's beliefs and preferences, ensuring that care is tailored to his individual needs. It also demonstrates a commitment to providing holistic and patient-centered care. Providing information about the chapel's hours and location (choice A) may not align with the client's beliefs as an agnostic. Inviting the client to a healing service (choice C) assumes the client's interest in such activities, which may not be the case. Offering to contact a spiritual advisor (choice D) may not be necessary if the client did not express a desire for it.
3. A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the perineum with warm soapy water 3 times per day
- B. Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator
- C. Perform a glucose measurement using a capillary blood sample
- D. Obtain a blood specimen for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instill the first dose of nystatin vaginally per applicator. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, which are characterized by 'cottage cheese' discharge. Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may help with hygiene but does not address the underlying infection. Performing a glucose measurement is not relevant to the diagnosis of a vaginal infection. Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this scenario as the symptoms described are indicative of a yeast infection.
4. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used to:
- A. Increase metabolism
- B. Reduce anxiety
- C. Decrease heart rate
- D. Increase blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used in the management of hyperthyroidism. It works by blocking the effects of adrenaline, resulting in a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not increase metabolism; instead, it may have a mild inhibitory effect. Choice B is incorrect as propranolol is not primarily used to reduce anxiety, although it may have some anxiolytic effects. Choice D is incorrect as propranolol actually decreases blood pressure by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart and blood vessels.
5. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?
- A. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
- B. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
- C. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
- D. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.
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