HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. The nurse is taking the blood pressure measurement of a client with Parkinson's disease. Which information in the client's admission assessment is relevant to the nurse's plan for taking the blood pressure reading?
- A. Frequent syncope
- B. Muscle rigidity
- C. Gait instability
- D. Fine motor tremors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Frequent syncope.' Orthostatic hypotension, common in Parkinson's disease, often causes syncope (fainting) when blood pressure drops upon standing. This information is critical for planning safe blood pressure measurements, ensuring readings are taken in both lying and standing positions to assess for sudden drops in pressure. Muscle rigidity, tremors, or gait instability are important symptoms in Parkinson's disease but are not directly related to blood pressure assessment.
2. A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a potassium supplement.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Administer calcium gluconate.
- D. Restrict the client's potassium intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.
3. A client with Type 1 diabetes reports feeling shaky and lightheaded. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 60 mg/dL. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Give the client a glucagon injection
- B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
- C. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
- D. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. The first step in treating hypoglycemia is to quickly raise the client's blood sugar level. Fast-acting carbohydrates like glucose tablets or juice are essential for this purpose. Giving a glucagon injection is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to take anything by mouth. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for immediate treatment of hypoglycemia. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes is important after administering the fast-acting carbohydrate to ensure that the blood sugar has returned to a safe level.
4. What instruction should the nurse include for a client prescribed nitroglycerin for a myocardial infarction?
- A. Take the medication only when experiencing severe chest pain.
- B. Store the medication in a dark container to protect it from light.
- C. Take the medication before engaging in physical activity that may trigger chest pain.
- D. Limit nitroglycerin use to no more than three doses in 15 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Limit nitroglycerin use to no more than three doses in 15 minutes.' This instruction is crucial to prevent excessive use, which can lead to severe hypotension and other complications. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should also be used preventatively, not only during severe chest pain. Choice B is irrelevant and not a necessary instruction for nitroglycerin use. Choice C is incorrect as nitroglycerin is typically taken to prevent chest pain rather than waiting for an activity that may trigger it.
5. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
- B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
- C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
- D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.
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