HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels every 6 hours.
- B. Monitor for signs of infection.
- C. Encourage increased oral fluid intake.
- D. Check the client's temperature every 4 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone, the nurse's priority action is to monitor for signs of infection. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Monitoring blood glucose levels may be important in clients receiving corticosteroids for prolonged periods, but it is not the priority in this case. Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is generally beneficial but not the priority over monitoring for infection. Checking the client's temperature is important but not the priority action compared to monitoring for signs of infection.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery, and their blood glucose level is 280 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- B. Delay surgery until the blood glucose is below 180 mg/dL.
- C. Check the client’s hemoglobin A1C level.
- D. Administer IV fluids to flush excess glucose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer insulin as prescribed. In clients with diabetes, high blood glucose levels can increase the risk of infection and impair healing after surgery. Administering insulin as prescribed helps reduce blood glucose to a safer level before surgery, preventing complications. Choice B is incorrect because delaying surgery without addressing the high blood glucose level does not address the immediate issue. Choice C is incorrect as checking the client's hemoglobin A1C level is not the priority when dealing with acute high blood glucose levels before surgery. Choice D is incorrect as administering IV fluids may help with hydration but does not directly address the high blood glucose level that needs immediate attention.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Reposition the client to improve breathing.
- C. Perform chest physiotherapy.
- D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with COPD experiencing increasing shortness of breath. It helps improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress. Choice B is not the priority as oxygenation needs to be addressed first. Choice C, chest physiotherapy, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D, encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe, is not the priority intervention when oxygenation is compromised.
4. In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not deflate completely during inspiration and the client’s respiratory rate is 14 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Remove the mask immediately
- B. Document the assessment data
- C. Increase the oxygen flow
- D. Increase the respiratory rate setting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to document the assessment data. In a partial rebreather mask, it is normal for the oxygen reservoir bag not to deflate completely during inspiration. Additionally, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute falls within the normal range. Therefore, these findings indicate that the mask is functioning as intended. Removing the mask immediately is unnecessary as there are no signs of distress. Increasing the oxygen flow or adjusting the respiratory rate setting is not warranted based on the assessment findings, as they are within normal parameters.
5. A 17-year-old adolescent reports flu-like symptoms and is brought to the emergency room. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Assess the client's temperature.
- B. Place a mask on the client.
- C. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol.
- D. Determine the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place a mask on the client. This intervention is crucial in preventing the spread of infections like the flu, especially in a healthcare setting where the risk of transmission is high. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority in this situation. Obtaining a chest X-ray (Choice C) and determining the client's blood pressure (Choice D) are not the immediate interventions needed for a 17-year-old reporting flu-like symptoms.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access