HESI RN
Leadership HESI Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is providing dietary instructions to a client with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?
- A. Seafood
- B. Spinach
- C. Bananas
- D. Oatmeal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client with hyperthyroidism should avoid foods high in iodine, as it can exacerbate the condition by increasing thyroid hormone production. Seafood, particularly ocean fish, is rich in iodine, making it a food to avoid. Spinach, bananas, and oatmeal do not contain high levels of iodine and are generally safe for individuals with hyperthyroidism.
2. The healthcare provider prescribes atenolol 50 mg daily for a client with angina pectoris. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering this medication?
- A. Irregular pulse.
- B. Tachycardia.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Urinary frequency.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Irregular pulse. An irregular pulse may indicate an arrhythmia, which could be exacerbated by atenolol, a beta-blocker used to treat angina pectoris. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, so if the patient already has an irregular pulse, it could worsen with the medication. Tachycardia (choice B) would actually be an expected finding in a patient with angina pectoris, and atenolol is used to help reduce the heart rate in such cases. Chest pain (choice C) is a symptom that atenolol is meant to alleviate, so it would not be a reason to withhold the medication. Urinary frequency (choice D) is not directly related to the administration of atenolol for angina pectoris and would not require immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.
3. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?
- A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
- B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
- C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
- D. Recent decreased urinary output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.
4. A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokalemia in combination with this medication ____________.
- A. Can predispose to dysrhythmias
- B. May lead to oliguria
- C. May cause irritability and anxiety
- D. Sometimes alters consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Can predispose to dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia combined with digoxin increases the risk of dysrhythmias due to the potentiation of digoxin's effects on cardiac conduction. Choice B, May lead to oliguria, is incorrect because hypokalemia is not typically associated with oliguria. Choice C, May cause irritability and anxiety, is incorrect as these symptoms are more commonly associated with hypocalcemia. Choice D, Sometimes alters consciousness, is incorrect as altered consciousness is not a typical effect of hypokalemia combined with digoxin.
5. A client is receiving meperidine (Demerol) for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Constipation
- B. Drowsiness
- C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a severe side effect of meperidine (Demerol) that necessitates immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common but less urgent side effects that do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk. Respiratory depression can lead to respiratory arrest and must be addressed promptly to ensure the client's safety and well-being.
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