a female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis to reverse hypertensive crisis caused b
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HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6

1. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

2. A client with type 1 DM is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should prioritize which action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering intravenous fluids is the priority in treating DKA for several reasons. DKA is characterized by severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to hyperglycemia. IV fluids help to correct dehydration, restore electrolyte balance, and decrease blood glucose levels. Administering oral glucose (Choice B) would be contraindicated in DKA as the primary issue is high blood glucose levels. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice C) is not the priority in managing DKA. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances take precedence in the management of DKA.

3. After undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy, a female client develops hypothyroidism. Dr. Smith prescribes levothyroxine (Levothroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. For which condition is levothyroxine the preferred agent?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine is the preferred agent for primary hypothyroidism because it provides the necessary replacement of thyroid hormone in patients with deficient thyroid function. Choice B, Graves' disease, is an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism and is typically treated with antithyroid medications or radioactive iodine. Choice C, thyrotoxicosis, refers to the clinical state resulting from excessive thyroid hormone action and is not typically treated with levothyroxine. Choice D, euthyroidism, describes a normal thyroid function and would not require treatment with levothyroxine.

4. Which of the following symptoms would be most concerning in a client with diabetes insipidus?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetes insipidus, excessive thirst (polydipsia) and excessive urination (polyuria) are expected symptoms due to the inability to concentrate urine, leading to dilute urine production. Nocturia, waking up at night to urinate, is also common. However, hypertension is not a typical symptom of diabetes insipidus. The correct answer is D because hypertension may indicate a complication such as dehydration or electrolyte imbalances, which would require further assessment in a client with diabetes insipidus.

5. The healthcare provider is providing dietary instructions to a client with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client with hyperthyroidism should avoid foods high in iodine, as it can exacerbate the condition by increasing thyroid hormone production. Seafood, particularly ocean fish, is rich in iodine, making it a food to avoid. Spinach, bananas, and oatmeal do not contain high levels of iodine and are generally safe for individuals with hyperthyroidism.

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