Nursing Elites

1. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

2. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client:

• A. Prefers to take insulin orally.
• B. Has type 2 diabetes.
• C. Has type 1 diabetes.
• D. Is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are specifically designed for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment due to the absence of endogenous insulin production. Therefore, these medications are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the male client in this scenario. Choice A is incorrect as oral antidiabetic agents are not about preference but rather about treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as being pregnant does not impact the effectiveness of oral antidiabetic agents; they are primarily indicated for type 2 diabetes.

3. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

4. A nurse manager is focusing on improving communication on the unit. Which of the following best describes the importance of this focus?

• A. The nurse manager's focus on communication is essential to ensure that all staff members are informed, understand their roles, and can work together effectively to provide quality care.
• B. The nurse manager's focus on communication is important to ensure that information is shared effectively and that there is a clear understanding of roles and responsibilities on the unit.
• C. The nurse manager's focus on communication is crucial to ensuring that all staff members are working together effectively and that there is a shared understanding of the unit's goals and priorities.
• D. The nurse manager's focus on communication is vital to creating an open and transparent environment where staff members feel comfortable sharing information and concerns.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective communication is essential for ensuring that all staff members are informed, understand their roles, and can collaborate effectively to provide quality care. Choice B focuses more on information sharing and understanding roles but lacks emphasis on effective teamwork and quality care provision. Choice C mentions staff working together effectively and understanding unit goals, but it does not explicitly highlight the importance of staff being informed and understanding their roles. Choice D emphasizes creating an open environment for sharing information and concerns, which is important but does not encompass the broader aspects of effective communication as described in choice A.

5. A client with diabetes insipidus is being treated with desmopressin. The nurse should monitor for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Desmopressin, a medication used in diabetes insipidus, can cause water retention by increasing water reabsorption in the kidneys. This excess water retention can lead to dilutional hyponatremia, where sodium levels in the body become too low. Monitoring for hyponatremia is crucial to prevent complications such as neurological symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because desmopressin is not known to cause hypernatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia.

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