Nursing Elites

1. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

2. A client with hypothyroidism is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Thyroid storm
• B. Myxedema coma
• C. Cushing's syndrome
• D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Myxedema coma is a severe, life-threatening complication that can occur in individuals with untreated or inadequately treated hypothyroidism. It is characterized by extreme hypothyroidism leading to decreased mental status, hypothermia, bradycardia, and respiratory depression. Thyroid storm (Choice A) is a severe complication of hyperthyroidism, not hypothyroidism. Cushing's syndrome (Choice C) results from prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, not related to hypothyroidism. Diabetic ketoacidosis (Choice D) is a complication of uncontrolled diabetes, not directly associated with hypothyroidism.

3. A good relationship between a leader and a follower enables the follower to 'manage up.' Which of the following describes the best way for a follower to 'manage up'?

• A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when the manager asks for it.
• B. Assist your manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses.
• C. When a follower works with a manager with poor leadership skills, it is best to transfer to a different unit.
• D. Show respect and appreciation for the manager, even when speaking with coworkers.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Managing up involves building a positive relationship with one's manager by showing respect and appreciation. Choice A is not the best way to manage up as it only focuses on providing feedback when asked, rather than proactively showing respect. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests assisting the manager in capitalizing on their strengths and weaknesses, which is more about helping the manager rather than managing up. Choice C is not the best option as transferring to a different unit should not be the first step in managing up, as it does not address the relationship with the current manager. Therefore, the best way for a follower to manage up is by showing respect and appreciation for the manager, even in conversations with coworkers.

4. Nurse Ruth is assessing a client after a thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals muscle twitching and tingling, along with numbness in the fingers, toes, and mouth area. The nurse should suspect which complication?

• A. Tetany
• B. Hemorrhage
• C. Thyroid storm
• D. Laryngeal nerve damage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tetany.' Tetany is characterized by muscle twitching, tingling, and numbness, which are indicative of hypocalcemia. After a thyroidectomy, accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands can lead to decreased calcium levels, resulting in tetany. Choice B, 'Hemorrhage,' is incorrect as it typically presents with symptoms such as sudden swelling, increased pain, or drop in blood pressure. Choice C, 'Thyroid storm,' is incorrect as it involves a sudden exacerbation of hyperthyroidism, leading to symptoms like fever, tachycardia, and confusion. Choice D, 'Laryngeal nerve damage,' is incorrect as it would manifest with voice changes, difficulty swallowing, or respiratory distress, not the symptoms described in the scenario.

5. A client with terminal pancreatic cancer asks questions about a do not resuscitate order. Which of the following statements should be included in the RN's teaching to the client?

• A. When a heart ceases to beat, the client is pronounced clinically dead.
• B. Physicians must write do not resuscitate (DNR) orders.
• C. A DNR order can be written after the healthcare provider has discussed it with the client and family.
• D. A DNR requires a court decision.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A DNR order is typically written after the healthcare provider has discussed the implications with the patient and their family. This ensures that the patient and family are fully informed before making such a critical decision. Choice A is incorrect because pronouncing clinical death is a medical determination, not directly related to DNR orders. Choice B is incorrect because while physicians commonly write DNR orders, the discussion with the patient and family is crucial. Choice D is incorrect because a DNR order does not require a court decision; it is a decision made in collaboration with the healthcare team and the patient or family.

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