Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with this condition?

• A. Increased serum sodium
• B. Decreased urine specific gravity
• C. Decreased serum osmolality
• D. Increased serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum osmolality. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The dilution of sodium results in decreased serum osmolality. Option A is incorrect because SIADH causes hyponatremia, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Option B is incorrect because SIADH leads to concentrated urine with increased urine specific gravity. Option D is incorrect as SIADH does not typically affect serum potassium levels.

2. A nurse manager is reviewing the nurse’s documentation on the unit. Which of the following best describes the importance of this review?

• A. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is crucial to ensure that it meets legal and ethical standards and accurately reflects the care provided to patients.
• B. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is important to ensure that it is thorough, accurate, and reflects the nurse’s accountability for patient care.
• C. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is necessary to ensure that it is consistent with the unit’s policies and procedures and that it accurately reflects the care provided.
• D. The nurse manager’s review of documentation is essential to ensure that it meets regulatory requirements and that it supports the delivery of safe and effective patient care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse manager's review of documentation is a critical aspect of maintaining quality patient care. Choice D is the correct answer as it highlights the importance of ensuring that documentation meets regulatory requirements, supporting the delivery of safe and effective patient care. Regulatory requirements are established to ensure that healthcare facilities function within established guidelines and standards, promoting patient safety and quality of care. Choices A, B, and C, although important aspects of documentation review, do not fully encapsulate the significant role of regulatory compliance in ensuring the overall quality and safety of patient care.

3. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicates an inadequate understanding of the peak action of NPH insulin and exercise?

• A. The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon.
• B. The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat.
• C. The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast.
• D. The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exercising in the afternoon may coincide with the peak action of NPH insulin, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia. The peak action of NPH insulin typically occurs 4-12 hours after administration, so exercising during this time can further lower blood sugar levels. Choices B, C, and D are better options as they suggest exercising at times that are less likely to overlap with the peak insulin action, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.

4. The client has hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following lab findings is consistent with this condition?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperparathyroidism leads to increased secretion of parathyroid hormone, which results in elevated calcium levels in the blood (hypercalcemia). Therefore, the correct lab finding consistent with hyperparathyroidism is hypercalcemia (Choice B). Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not indicative of hyperparathyroidism as the condition is associated with high calcium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice C) is a low potassium level, which is not typically associated with hyperparathyroidism. Hyperphosphatemia (Choice D) refers to high phosphate levels and is not a characteristic finding in hyperparathyroidism.

5. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

• A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. In the treatment of hypoglycemia, it is important to administer a specific amount of simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels effectively without causing hyperglycemia. 10 to 15 g of simple carbohydrates, such as glucose tablets, fruit juice, or regular soft drinks, is recommended to rapidly increase blood sugar levels in clients experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either provide too little or too much glucose, which may not effectively treat the hypoglycemic episode or may lead to rebound hyperglycemia.

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