HESI RN
HESI Leadership and Management
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with this condition?
- A. Increased serum sodium
- B. Decreased urine specific gravity
- C. Decreased serum osmolality
- D. Increased serum potassium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum osmolality. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The dilution of sodium results in decreased serum osmolality. Option A is incorrect because SIADH causes hyponatremia, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Option B is incorrect because SIADH leads to concentrated urine with increased urine specific gravity. Option D is incorrect as SIADH does not typically affect serum potassium levels.
2. The client has been managing angina episodes with nitroglycerin. Which of the following indicates the drug is effective?
- A. Decreased chest pain.
- B. Increased blood pressure.
- C. Decreased blood pressure.
- D. Decreased heart rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased chest pain. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that works by decreasing myocardial oxygen consumption, which helps to reduce chest pain caused by angina. Therefore, a reduction in chest pain is a positive indicator of the drug's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because nitroglycerin does not typically increase blood pressure or heart rate; instead, it often causes a decrease in blood pressure due to vasodilation and may cause a reflex tachycardia (increased heart rate) as a compensatory response to lowered blood pressure.
3. A 65-year-old male client with a history of smoking and high cholesterol is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
- D. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia, especially given the client's symptoms and history. Chest X-ray (Choice B) may be ordered to evaluate the lungs but would not be the initial test for this client presenting with chest pain and shortness of breath. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) (Choice C) are used to assess oxygenation and acid-base balance but are not the primary diagnostic test for a client with suspected cardiac issues. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) (Choice D) are used to assess lung function and would not be the first test indicated in this scenario.
4. Which of the following makes it possible to predict the genotype and phenotype of the offspring of sexual reproduction?
- A. Punnett square
- B. Chi-square
- C. Microscope
- D. None of these
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Punnett square. A Punnett square is a tool specifically designed to predict the genotype and phenotype combinations of offspring resulting from a particular cross or breeding experiment. It helps in understanding the probability of different genotypes and phenotypes appearing in the offspring. Choice B, Chi-square, is a statistical test used to determine if there is a significant difference between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in a study. Choice C, Microscope, is used for viewing tiny structures and organisms, not for predicting genetic outcomes. Choice D, None of these, is incorrect as Punnett square is a valid tool for predicting genetic outcomes in offspring.
5. A 7-year-old child with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with a respiratory infection. The nurse is teaching the child’s parents about the importance of chest physiotherapy (CPT). Which statement by the parents indicates they need further teaching?
- A. We should perform CPT before meals.
- B. CPT will help loosen mucus in the lungs.
- C. We should perform CPT right after the child eats.
- D. CPT is an important part of our child’s treatment.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest physiotherapy should not be performed right after meals to avoid inducing vomiting. It should be done before meals or at least 1 hour after for effective mucus clearance and to prevent any potential complications like vomiting. Choice A is correct as performing CPT before meals helps in loosening mucus. Choice B is also correct as CPT is indeed helpful in loosening mucus in the lungs. Choice D is correct as CPT plays a crucial role in the treatment of cystic fibrosis.