Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with this condition?

• A. Increased serum sodium
• B. Decreased urine specific gravity
• C. Decreased serum osmolality
• D. Increased serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum osmolality. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The dilution of sodium results in decreased serum osmolality. Option A is incorrect because SIADH causes hyponatremia, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Option B is incorrect because SIADH leads to concentrated urine with increased urine specific gravity. Option D is incorrect as SIADH does not typically affect serum potassium levels.

2. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

3. The client with type 2 DM is being instructed by the nurse about the importance of controlling blood glucose levels. The nurse should emphasize that uncontrolled blood glucose can lead to:

• A. Increased risk of heart disease and stroke.
• B. Improved wound healing.
• C. Reduced need for medication.
• D. Decreased risk of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uncontrolled blood glucose levels are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular complications, such as heart disease and stroke. High blood glucose levels can damage blood vessels over time, leading to atherosclerosis, which can increase the likelihood of heart disease and stroke. Improved wound healing (choice B) is not a consequence of uncontrolled blood glucose levels; in fact, high blood sugar levels can impair wound healing. Reduced need for medication (choice C) is inaccurate because uncontrolled blood glucose usually necessitates more medication to manage the condition. Decreased risk of infection (choice D) is also misleading as high blood glucose levels can compromise the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections.

4. The healthcare professional is educating a client with Cushing's syndrome about dietary management. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Increase sodium intake
• B. Limit protein intake
• C. Limit calcium intake
• D. Increase potassium intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with Cushing's syndrome, they are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased excretion of potassium. Therefore, it is essential to advise them to increase their potassium intake. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Increasing sodium intake can worsen fluid retention and hypertension common in Cushing's syndrome. B) Limiting protein intake is not necessary unless there are specific kidney issues that require protein restriction. C) Limiting calcium intake is not typically recommended unless there are underlying conditions such as hypercalcemia.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

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