a client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation which assessment should the nurse prioritize
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. A client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. When managing hepatic encephalopathy with lactulose, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it is a key indicator of the therapeutic response to lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Changes in consciousness can reflect the effectiveness of treatment and the progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Option A, percussion of the abdomen, is not directly related to evaluating the response to lactulose. Option B, blood glucose level, is important but not the priority in this context. Option C, serum electrolytes, while significant in liver disease, do not directly assess the impact of lactulose therapy on hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A male client with heart failure becomes short of breath, anxious, and has pink frothy sputum. What is the first action the nurse should take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the morphine sulfate as prescribed. In this situation, the client is experiencing symptoms of acute pulmonary edema, a complication of heart failure. Morphine is indicated as it helps reduce anxiety and respiratory distress by decreasing preload and afterload. It dilates blood vessels, reducing the workload of the heart and improving oxygenation. The priority is to administer the morphine promptly to alleviate the client's distress and improve oxygenation. Consulting the charge nurse (A) or reviewing the need for the morphine prescription with the provider (D) would cause a delay in providing essential treatment. Withholding the morphine (C) would not be appropriate as it is indicated for this condition.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection to a thin, elderly client. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the upper outer thigh. In thin, elderly clients, the upper outer thigh is a recommended site for subcutaneous injections due to the presence of adequate subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass. The dorsal aspect of the upper arm may not provide enough subcutaneous tissue for proper absorption of the medication. The lower abdomen is not ideal for thin individuals as it may lead to injection into muscle rather than subcutaneous tissue. The lateral aspect of the upper arm is also not a commonly recommended site for subcutaneous injections.

4. A client asks the nurse to call the police and states: 'I need to report that I am being abused by a nurse.' The nurse should first

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse is to obtain more details about the client's claim of abuse. This will help the nurse better understand the situation before proceeding with any further actions. Option A is incorrect as reality orientation is not the priority in this situation. Option B is premature as more details are needed first. Option D is not the immediate step as gathering information should come before documentation and reporting.

5. An older adult client with eye dryness reports itching and excessive tearing. Which medication group is most likely to have produced this client's symptoms?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Antihypertensives and anticholinergics. Anticholinergics are known to cause dryness of secretions, including dry eyes, which can lead to symptoms of eye dryness, itching, and excessive tearing as reported by the client. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not typically cause the symptoms described by the client. Antiinfectives, antidepressants, anticoagulants, antihistamines, antiretrovirals, and antivirals do not commonly lead to dry eyes, itching, and excessive tearing.

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