HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Percussion of the abdomen.
- B. Blood glucose level.
- C. Serum electrolytes.
- D. Level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. When managing hepatic encephalopathy with lactulose, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it is a key indicator of the therapeutic response to lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Changes in consciousness can reflect the effectiveness of treatment and the progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Option A, percussion of the abdomen, is not directly related to evaluating the response to lactulose. Option B, blood glucose level, is important but not the priority in this context. Option C, serum electrolytes, while significant in liver disease, do not directly assess the impact of lactulose therapy on hepatic encephalopathy.
2. The nurse is responsible for several elderly clients, including a client on bed rest with a skin tear and hematoma from a fall 2 days ago. What is the best care assignment for this client?
- A. Assign an RN to supervise a nursing assistant for skin care
- B. Assign a nursing assistant to help the client with self-care activities
- C. Delegate complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel
- D. Supervise a nursing assistant for skin care
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best care assignment for the client with a skin tear and hematoma is to supervise a nursing assistant for skin care. This ensures proper wound care while utilizing the skills of the nursing assistant effectively. Assigning an RN to supervise the nursing assistant is appropriate as it provides the necessary expertise for wound care supervision. Delegating complete care to an unlicensed assistive personnel may not be suitable for a client with specific wound care needs. Helping the client with self-care activities may not directly address the urgent need for proper wound care in this situation.
3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increase fluid intake with meals
- B. Avoid lying down for at least 30 minutes after eating
- C. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day
- D. Consume spicy foods in moderation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching for a client with GERD is to eat small, frequent meals throughout the day. This recommendation helps reduce symptoms by preventing the stomach from becoming overly full, which can increase pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter and lead to acid reflux. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake with meals can exacerbate GERD symptoms, lying down after eating can worsen reflux, and consuming spicy foods can trigger acid reflux in individuals with GERD.
4. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
- B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
- D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.
5. The nurse observes that a client’s wrist restraint is secured to the side rail of the bed. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Ensure that the restraint is snug against the client’s wrist.
- B. Reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe.
- C. Double knot the restraint to ensure safety.
- D. Leave the restraint in place and notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe. Restraints should always be secured to the bedframe, not the side rails, to prevent injury to the client in case the bed is adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is with the attachment point, not the snugness of the restraint. Choice C is incorrect as double knotting the restraint does not address the incorrect attachment point. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not leave the restraint in the wrong position; instead, it should be moved to the correct location on the bedframe.
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