HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?
- A. It enhances the effectiveness of the medication
- B. It helps to improve absorption
- C. It prevents orthostatic hypotension
- D. It reduces gastrointestinal upset
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.
2. A client with antisocial personality disorder repeatedly requests a specific nurse be assigned to him and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests
- B. Assign the nurse requested by the client to avoid further conflict
- C. Tell the client that he can request a different nurse if unhappy
- D. Explain the situation calmly and reinforce the rules regarding nurse assignments
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests. In this situation, it is essential to establish boundaries and communicate that nurse assignments are made based on clinical decisions, not patient preferences. Option B is incorrect because it compromises the principle of fairness in nurse assignments. Option C is incorrect as it encourages the client's behavior by allowing him to request a different nurse based on personal preferences. Option D is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of patient manipulation and reinforces inappropriate behavior.
3. A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Reassure the client and provide emotional support.
- B. Redirect the client to a quiet activity.
- C. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam.
- D. Apply soft restraints as needed to prevent harm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.
4. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?
- A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
- B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
- C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
- D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.
5. A client with cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone. What electrolyte level should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Monitor potassium levels.
- B. Monitor sodium levels.
- C. Monitor calcium levels.
- D. Monitor magnesium levels.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Monitoring potassium levels closely is essential because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Sodium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Calcium and magnesium levels are also not directly impacted by spironolactone, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.
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