Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Increase the TPN infusion rate if the client is hungry
• B. Administer TPN via a peripheral IV line
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly
• D. Ensure the TPN solution is refrigerated at all times

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the client's plan of care is to monitor blood glucose levels regularly. Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content of the solution. Regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to ensure appropriate management of blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the TPN infusion rate based on hunger is not a valid parameter for adjusting TPN. Choice B is incorrect because TPN should be administered through a central line, not a peripheral IV line, to prevent complications. Choice D is incorrect because TPN solutions should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated.

2. A client reports unilateral leg swelling after a long flight. What complication is the nurse most concerned about?

• A. Monitor for signs of a pulmonary embolism.
• B. Assess for signs of dehydration.
• C. Monitor for signs of compartment syndrome.
• D. Check the client’s oxygen saturation levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Unilateral leg swelling following a long flight may indicate a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate attention. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, potentially blocking blood flow and leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dehydration, compartment syndrome, and oxygen saturation levels are not typically associated with unilateral leg swelling after a long flight. While dehydration can cause leg cramps, compartment syndrome is more commonly associated with trauma or injury, and oxygen saturation levels are not the primary concern in this scenario.

3. A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?

• A. Anticholinergics
• B. Beta blockers
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.

4. The nurse identifies an electrolyte imbalance, a weight gain of 4.4 lbs in 24 hours, and an elevated central venous pressure for a client with full-thickness burns. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer diuretics
• B. Review urine output
• C. Auscultate for irregular heart rate
• D. Increase oral fluid intake

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated CVP and sudden weight gain indicate fluid overload, which can strain the heart. Auscultating for an irregular heart rate is crucial as electrolyte imbalances and fluid shifts after burns can lead to cardiac complications. Monitoring the heart rate is a priority to detect any cardiac distress early. While reviewing urine output and administering diuretics are important interventions, they should come after ensuring the client's cardiac status is stable. Increasing oral fluid intake may exacerbate the fluid overload, making it an inappropriate intervention in this scenario.

5. A client with severe dehydration is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. The client reports feeling less thirsty
• B. Urine output increases to 40 mL/hour
• C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
• D. Skin turgor returns to normal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a reliable indicator that the client's hydration status is improving. This reflects adequate fluid replacement and improved kidney function. Choice A is subjective and may not always indicate improved hydration. Choice C, while a positive sign, may be influenced by other factors such as medications or pain. Choice D, skin turgor returning to normal, is a delayed indicator of hydration status and may take time to improve even after hydration is initiated.

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