Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Increase the TPN infusion rate if the client is hungry
• B. Administer TPN via a peripheral IV line
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly
• D. Ensure the TPN solution is refrigerated at all times

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the client's plan of care is to monitor blood glucose levels regularly. Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content of the solution. Regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to ensure appropriate management of blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the TPN infusion rate based on hunger is not a valid parameter for adjusting TPN. Choice B is incorrect because TPN should be administered through a central line, not a peripheral IV line, to prevent complications. Choice D is incorrect because TPN solutions should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated.

2. The nurse is planning to administer two medications at 0900. Which property of the drugs indicates a need to monitor the client for toxicity?

• A. Short half-life
• B. High therapeutic index
• C. Highly protein-bound
• D. Low bioavailability

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Highly protein-bound.' Drugs that are highly protein-bound can displace from protein-binding sites, leading to increased free drug levels in the blood, which can result in toxicity. Monitoring the client for toxicity is crucial when administering highly protein-bound drugs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A short half-life does not necessarily indicate a need for monitoring toxicity; a high therapeutic index indicates a wide safety margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose, reducing the risk of toxicity; low bioavailability refers to the fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged and does not directly relate to the risk of toxicity.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with advanced liver disease who is experiencing ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help manage the client's fluid volume?

• A. Increase the client's sodium intake
• B. Encourage the client to drink more fluids
• C. Place the client in a supine position
• D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a diuretic as prescribed is the most appropriate intervention to manage fluid volume in a client with ascites due to advanced liver disease. Diuretics help reduce fluid accumulation in the body, including the abdominal cavity where ascites occurs. Increasing sodium intake would worsen fluid retention, and encouraging more fluid intake can exacerbate ascites. Placing the client in a supine position does not directly address the fluid volume issue associated with ascites.

4. The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to contracting lead poisoning?

• A. An 8-year-old living in a housing project.
• B. A 2-year-old playing on aging playground equipment.
• C. An adolescent working in a paint factory.
• D. A 10-year-old with Type 1 diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Young children, like the 2-year-old playing on aging playground equipment, are more susceptible to lead poisoning from environmental sources due to their behaviors like hand-to-mouth contact and exploratory behaviors. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to be at high risk for lead poisoning compared to young children due to differences in exposure levels and behaviors related to potential sources of lead contamination.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
• D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

Similar Questions