Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-sodium diet. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

• A. Choose fresh fruits and vegetables.
• B. Restrict fluid intake to 1500 mL per day.
• C. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.
• D. Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.' For a client with chronic kidney disease, limiting sodium intake is crucial because it helps prevent fluid retention and reduces the workload on the kidneys. Choice A, 'Choose fresh fruits and vegetables,' is generally a healthy dietary recommendation but not the priority when focusing on a low-sodium diet. Choice B, 'Restrict fluid intake to 1500 mL per day,' is important but secondary to limiting sodium intake. Choice D, 'Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia,' is not the priority teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease on a low-sodium diet.

2. An S3 heart sound is auscultated in a client in her third trimester of pregnancy. What intervention should the nurse take?

• A. Perform a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• B. Document in the client's record
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• D. Assess for signs of heart failure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An S3 heart sound is often a normal finding in pregnant women due to increased blood volume and cardiac output. The nurse should document the finding as part of the routine assessment unless accompanied by other abnormal symptoms. Performing a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice A) is unnecessary for a normal S3 heart sound in pregnancy. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is premature and may lead to unnecessary interventions. Assessing for signs of heart failure (Choice D) is not indicated as an isolated S3 heart sound is typically benign in pregnancy.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin and reports nausea. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer an anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
• B. Assess the client's digoxin level immediately.
• C. Assess the client’s apical pulse and hold the next dose if it's below 60 bpm.
• D. Instruct the client to reduce their fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client on digoxin reports nausea, it can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's digoxin level immediately. This assessment will help determine if the nausea is related to digoxin toxicity, requiring a dosage adjustment. Administering an anti-nausea medication (Choice A) does not address the underlying issue of potential digoxin toxicity. Assessing the client's apical pulse (Choice C) is important in general digoxin monitoring but not the first action when nausea is reported. Instructing the client to reduce fluid intake (Choice D) is not the initial response to nausea in a client taking digoxin.

4. A client with a history of stroke is receiving warfarin. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Check the client's blood pressure.
• B. Assess for signs of bleeding.
• C. Assess the client's neurological status.
• D. Monitor the client's intake and output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding in patients. Monitoring for signs of bleeding such as easy bruising, petechiae, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from gums is crucial. Checking the client's blood pressure (choice A) is important but not the priority in this situation. Assessing the client's neurological status (choice C) is essential in stroke patients but is not the priority related to warfarin therapy. Monitoring intake and output (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not the priority when a client is on warfarin, as assessing for bleeding takes precedence.

5. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
• B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
• C. Recent history of smoking.
• D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.

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