HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
- B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
- C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
- D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.
2. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute and is becoming increasingly dyspneic. Which additional assessment finding by the nurse supports the client's admitting diagnosis?
- A. An enlarged, distended abdomen.
- B. Crackles in the bases of both lungs.
- C. Jugular vein distension.
- D. Peripheral edema.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Crackles in the bases of the lungs are indicative of fluid accumulation, which is common in left-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, the heart is unable to effectively pump blood from the lungs to the rest of the body, leading to a backup of fluid in the lungs. This results in crackles heard on auscultation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific to left-sided heart failure. An enlarged, distended abdomen may indicate ascites or liver congestion. Jugular vein distension is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, and peripheral edema is a sign of fluid accumulation in the tissues, which can occur in both types of heart failure but is not as specific to left-sided heart failure as crackles in the lungs.
3. A client with a history of closed head injury has a radial artery catheter in place and complains of numbness and pain distal to the insertion site. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the site for further complications.
- B. Promptly remove the catheter from the radial artery.
- C. Elevate the client’s arm above the heart.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider and prepare for surgery.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weak pulse and numbness distal to a radial artery catheter may indicate occlusion or damage to the artery, and immediate removal of the catheter is necessary to prevent complications. Therefore, promptly removing the catheter from the radial artery (Choice B) is the correct action. Monitoring the site (Choice A) would delay necessary intervention, elevating the client's arm (Choice C) may not address the underlying issue, and notifying the healthcare provider for surgery (Choice D) without removing the catheter promptly could lead to further complications.
4. An antidepressant medication is prescribed for a client who reports sleeping only 4 hours in the past 2 days and weight loss of 9 lbs within the last month. Which client goal is most important to achieve within the first three days of treatment?
- A. Meet scheduled appointments with a dietitian.
- B. Sleep at least 6 hours a night.
- C. Understand the purpose of the medication regimen.
- D. Describe the reasons for hospitalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important goal to achieve within the first three days of treatment is to ensure the client can sleep at least 6 hours a night. Adequate sleep is essential for stabilizing mood and improving overall functioning. Improving sleep patterns is crucial to address the reported sleep deficit and weight loss associated with depression. Choice A is not as urgent as improving sleep patterns. Choice C is important but not as immediate as addressing the sleep deficit. Choice D is unrelated to the immediate treatment goal of improving sleep and managing symptoms of depression.
5. The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been 'wetting the bed' since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Reassure the father that it is normal for a child to wet the bed after a traumatic event
- B. Inform the father that nocturnal emissions are abnormal and his son is developmentally delayed
- C. Inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma
- D. Refer the father and the client to a psychologist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bedwetting after trauma, such as losing a parent, is common in children. The nurse should inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma. Reassurance and understanding are essential in addressing the child's emotional needs during this difficult time. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on puberty rather than trauma as the underlying cause. Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about nocturnal emissions and developmental delay. Choice D is premature as the first step should be to provide education and support before considering a referral to a psychologist.