HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
- B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
- C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
- D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.
2. An adult male is brought to the ER after a motorcycle accident with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which finding requires immediate attention?
- A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
- B. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
- C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
- D. Projectile vomiting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears suggest a severe head injury. Projectile vomiting is a red flag symptom that may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate attention to prevent further neurological deterioration. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) typically indicates peritonitis and is not directly related to the primary head injury. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally (choice B) suggest a pneumothorax or hemothorax, which are important but not as immediately life-threatening in this context. Rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) is concerning for rib fractures or pulmonary contusion, which are also important but do not take precedence over addressing the potential increased intracranial pressure.
3. A client is experiencing angina at rest. Which statement indicates a good understanding of the care required?
- A. I will notify the nurse if my chest pain is not relieved in 30 minutes.
- B. I will use nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses.
- C. I will avoid physical activity until the pain subsides completely.
- D. I will take nitroglycerin 30 minutes before any physical activity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses, is the appropriate management for angina at rest. This helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Choice A is incorrect because chest pain that persists at rest should be addressed immediately, not waiting for 30 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding physical activity is not a recommended approach during an angina episode. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be used during chest pain episodes, not as a preventive measure before physical activity.
4. A client is admitted with a severe burn injury. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's urine output.
- B. Administer intravenous fluids.
- C. Apply cool, moist compresses to the burn area.
- D. Cover the burn area with a sterile dressing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous fluids. In a client with severe burn injury, the priority intervention is to administer intravenous fluids to prevent shock. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important but not the priority. Applying cool, moist compresses (Choice C) can be beneficial but is not the priority over fluid resuscitation. Covering the burn area with a sterile dressing (Choice D) is important for wound care but is not the immediate priority in managing severe burns.
5. An older client is admitted to the intensive care unit unconscious after several days of vomiting and diarrhea. The nurse inserts a urinary catheter and observes dark amber urine output. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Begin dopamine infusion at 2 mcg/kg/minute.
- B. Begin potassium chloride 10 mEq over 1 hour.
- C. Give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes.
- D. Administer promethazine 25 mg IV push.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention is to give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes. The client's dark amber urine output indicates dehydration and hypovolemia, requiring rapid fluid resuscitation. Dopamine infusion, potassium chloride, and promethazine are not the initial interventions needed for a client with hypovolemic symptoms.
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