HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of a cephalosporin medication to a patient who has been receiving the antibiotic for 2 weeks. The nurse notes ulcers on the patient’s tongue and buccal mucosa. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Hold the drug and notify the provider.
- B. Obtain an order to culture the oral lesions.
- C. Gather emergency equipment to prepare for anaphylaxis.
- D. Report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin to the physician as the patient's symptoms may indicate a superinfection that requires treatment. Holding the drug is not necessary unless directed by the provider. Culturing the lesions is not indicated for this situation. There is no evidence to suggest impending anaphylaxis based on the patient's symptoms.
2. A client is recovering from a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy and reports increased pain from 3 to 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Reposition the client on the operative side.
- B. Administer the prescribed opioid analgesic.
- C. Assess the pulse rate and blood pressure.
- D. Examine the color of the client’s urine.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An abrupt increase in pain following a percutaneous kidney biopsy may indicate internal hemorrhage. Assessing the client's pulse rate and blood pressure is crucial as changes in vital signs can be indicative of hemorrhage. This assessment is essential in determining the client's hemodynamic status and the need for immediate intervention. Repositioning the client, administering pain medication, or checking urine color are not the priority actions in this situation and may delay necessary interventions for potential hemorrhage.
3. A client has pyelonephritis and expresses embarrassment about discussing symptoms. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Assure the client that their symptoms will be kept confidential.
- B. Acknowledge the client's discomfort and avoid discussing elimination topics.
- C. Encourage the use of familiar language and assure the client they can take their time.
- D. Offer the client a nurse of the same gender to provide care.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client expresses embarrassment or discomfort in discussing symptoms related to sensitive topics like elimination and the genitourinary area, the nurse should respond by encouraging the client to use words they are comfortable with. This helps the client feel more at ease and opens up communication. Offering a nurse of the same gender may not address the client's discomfort with discussing symptoms. Assuring confidentiality is important, but it should not be promised in a way that may not be fulfilled. Avoiding the topic of elimination entirely does not address the client's feelings or promote effective communication.
4. A client's laboratory findings indicate elevations in thyroxine and triiodothyronine hormones. The nurse suspects that the client may have hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding is most often associated with hyperthyroidism?
- A. Periorbital edema.
- B. Atrophied thyroid gland.
- C. Increased pulse rate.
- D. Diarrhea stools.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increased pulse rate is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism due to the increased metabolic rate. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome or heart failure, not hyperthyroidism. Atrophied thyroid gland (Choice B) is not typically an assessment finding for hyperthyroidism as the gland is usually enlarged in this condition. Diarrhea stools (Choice D) can occur in hyperthyroidism, but it is not the most common assessment finding associated with the condition.
5. The nurse notes that the only ECG for a 55-year-old male client scheduled for surgery in two hours is dated two years ago. The client reports that he has a history of 'heart trouble,' but has no problems at present. Hospital protocol requires that those over 50 years of age have a recent ECG prior to surgery. What nursing action is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Ask the client to explain what he means by 'heart trouble.'
- B. Call for an ECG to be performed immediately.
- C. Notify surgery that the ECG is over two years old.
- D. Notify the client's surgeon immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is 55 years old with a history of 'heart trouble,' which necessitates a recent ECG before surgery as per hospital policy. The nurse should prioritize patient safety and adhere to the protocol by arranging for an ECG to be performed immediately. Option A is not the best initial action as the focus should be on obtaining the necessary test first. Option C is not the immediate action required, and option D is premature without obtaining the necessary ECG first.
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