Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of a cephalosporin medication to a patient who has been receiving the antibiotic for 2 weeks. The nurse notes ulcers on the patient’s tongue and buccal mucosa. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Hold the drug and notify the provider.
• B. Obtain an order to culture the oral lesions.
• C. Gather emergency equipment to prepare for anaphylaxis.
• D. Report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin to the physician as the patient's symptoms may indicate a superinfection that requires treatment. Holding the drug is not necessary unless directed by the provider. Culturing the lesions is not indicated for this situation. There is no evidence to suggest impending anaphylaxis based on the patient's symptoms.

2. A client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur that is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that the client's distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Verify pedal pulses using a Doppler pulse device
• B. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg
• C. Offer ice chips and clear oral liquids
• D. Monitor the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating the application of the splint is the priority as it ensures it is not too tight, which could impair circulation and exacerbate the diminished pulses. Verifying pedal pulses with a Doppler pulse device may be indicated but does not directly address the immediate concern of proper splint application. Offering ice chips and clear oral liquids would not address the issue of diminished distal pulses. Monitoring the left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, and pressure is important but would not directly address the cause of the diminished pulses in this scenario.

3. The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported by the client supports this diagnosis?

• A. Frequent use of chewable and liquid antacids for indigestion
• B. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea after eating spicy foods
• C. Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain
• D. Marked weight loss and appetite over the last 3 to 4 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Upper mid-abdominal gnawing and burning pain.' This symptom is a classic presentation of peptic ulcer disease. Antacids (choice A) may provide relief but do not confirm the diagnosis. Severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea (choice B) are more suggestive of other conditions like irritable bowel syndrome. Weight loss and appetite changes (choice D) are non-specific and could be related to various health issues.

4. A client is unsure of the decision to undergo peritoneal dialysis (PD) and wishes to discuss the advantages of this treatment with the nurse. Which statements by the nurse are accurate regarding PD? (Select all that apply.)

• A. You will not need vascular access to perform PD.
• B. There is less restriction of protein and fluids.
• C. You have flexible scheduling for the exchanges.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the statements are accurate advantages of peritoneal dialysis (PD). Peritoneal dialysis does not require vascular access, offers less restriction on protein and fluids, and provides flexibility in scheduling for the exchanges. Choice A is correct because one of the advantages of PD is not needing vascular access, which is required in hemodialysis. Choice B is correct because PD allows for less dietary restriction compared to hemodialysis. Choice C is correct because PD allows for flexible scheduling of exchanges, providing more independence to the individual undergoing treatment.

5. A client with early breast cancer receives the results of a breast biopsy and asks the nurse to explain the meaning of staging and the type of receptors found on the cancer cells. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Lymph node involvement is not significant.
• B. Small tumors are aggressive and indicate poor prognosis.
• C. The tumor's estrogen receptor guides treatment options.
• D. Stage I indicates metastasis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Treatment decisions and prediction of prognosis are related to the tumor's receptor status, such as estrogen and progesterone receptor status which commonly are well-differentiated, have a lower chance of recurrence, and are receptive to hormonal therapy. Tumor staging designates tumor size and spread of breast cancer cells into axillary lymph nodes, which is one of the most important prognostic factors in early-stage breast cancer.

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