HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of a cephalosporin medication to a patient who has been receiving the antibiotic for 2 weeks. The nurse notes ulcers on the patient’s tongue and buccal mucosa. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Hold the drug and notify the provider.
- B. Obtain an order to culture the oral lesions.
- C. Gather emergency equipment to prepare for anaphylaxis.
- D. Report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should report a possible superinfection side effect of the cephalosporin to the physician as the patient's symptoms may indicate a superinfection that requires treatment. Holding the drug is not necessary unless directed by the provider. Culturing the lesions is not indicated for this situation. There is no evidence to suggest impending anaphylaxis based on the patient's symptoms.
2. When obtaining the health history of a client suspected of having bladder cancer, which question should the nurse ask to determine the client's risk factors?
- A. Do you smoke cigarettes?
- B. Do you consume alcohol?
- C. Do you use recreational drugs?
- D. Do you take any prescription drugs?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Do you smoke cigarettes?' Smoking is a major risk factor for bladder cancer. Cigarette smoke contains harmful chemicals that can accumulate in the urine and damage the lining of the bladder, increasing the risk of developing cancer. Alcohol use, recreational drug use, and most prescription drugs are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. It is important for the nurse to assess smoking history as a significant risk factor in determining the client's risk for bladder cancer.
3. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Hemoglobin level.
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level.
- C. Serum potassium level.
- D. Creatinine level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The serum potassium level should be monitored closely in clients undergoing hemodialysis due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Hemodialysis is used to remove waste products and excess electrolytes like potassium from the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because an imbalance can lead to serious cardiac complications, making it the priority value to monitor in this scenario. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for anemia assessment in chronic renal failure but is not directly related to hemodialysis. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels (choice B) and creatinine levels (choice D) are commonly monitored in renal function tests but are not the top priority for monitoring in a client undergoing hemodialysis.
4. A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, 'Why is so much of my hair falling out each day?' Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?
- A. 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.'
- B. 'Alopecia is a common side effect you will experience during long-term steroid therapy.'
- C. 'Your hair will grow back completely after your course of chemotherapy is completed.'
- D. 'The chemotherapy causes permanent alterations in your hair follicles that lead to hair loss.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.' Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include not only cancer cells but also healthy cells like those in hair follicles. This leads to alopecia (hair loss) as a common side effect. Choice B is incorrect as alopecia is primarily associated with chemotherapy and not long-term steroid therapy. Choice C is incorrect because while hair may grow back after chemotherapy, it may not always be to the same extent or thickness. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy-induced hair loss is often temporary and reversible, not permanent alterations in hair follicles.
5. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for
- A. hyperkalemia.
- B. hypermagnesemia.
- C. hypocalcemia.
- D. hypoglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.
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