Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous antibiotic to a client with a central venous catheter. Which action is most important?

• A. Flush the catheter with heparin.
• B. Change the dressing at the insertion site.
• C. Check for blood return before administering the antibiotic.
• D. Use sterile technique when accessing the catheter.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Using sterile technique when accessing the catheter is crucial to prevent infection in clients with a central venous catheter. This action helps maintain asepsis and reduces the risk of introducing pathogens into the catheter system. Flushing the catheter with heparin helps prevent occlusion but is not as crucial as ensuring sterile technique. Changing the dressing at the insertion site is important for assessing the site's condition but does not directly impact the administration of the antibiotic. Checking for blood return is essential to ensure proper catheter function, but sterile technique takes precedence to prevent infections.

2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.

3. A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least likely to exacerbate asthma?

• A. Pindolol (Visken)
• B. Carteolol (Ocupress)
• C. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor)
• D. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor). Metoprolol is a beta2 blocking agent that is cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction, making it a suitable antihypertensive option for clients with asthma. Choices A, B, and D are non-selective beta-blockers which can potentially exacerbate asthma symptoms by causing bronchoconstriction.

4. A client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis in the morning. Which pre-dialysis medication should the nurse withhold until after the dialysis treatment is completed?

• A. Calcium carbonate (Os-Cal)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Spironolactone (Aldactone)
• D. Multivitamins

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a diuretic that promotes fluid loss, and giving it before hemodialysis can lead to excessive fluid loss during the treatment, potentially causing hypovolemia. Withholding furosemide until after the dialysis session helps in preventing this complication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because calcium carbonate, spironolactone, and multivitamins are not typically contraindicated before hemodialysis in clients with chronic renal failure.

5. A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Abruptly stop the medication.
• B. Continue the medication at the same dose.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week.
• D. Increase the dose of the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gradually tapering the dose over one to two weeks should be recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias.

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