Nursing Elites

1. An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client?

• A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents.
• B. Antihistamines.
• C. Tricyclic antidepressants.
• D. Antibiotics.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tricyclic antidepressants. Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants, can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in older clients. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (Choice A) do not typically cause urinary retention. Antihistamines (Choice B) may cause urinary retention but are not the primary concern in this scenario. Antibiotics (Choice D) are not associated with an increased risk of urinary retention compared to tricyclic antidepressants.

2. The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 before administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer the dose as prescribed.
• B. Hold the medication.
• C. Call the healthcare provider.
• D. Repeat the vital signs in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to administer the dose as prescribed. Verapamil slows sinoatrial nodal automaticity and delays atrioventricular nodal conduction, which helps in slowing the ventricular rate. The heart rate of 92 and blood pressure of 110/76 are within an acceptable range for administering verapamil in a client with atrial flutter. Holding the medication, calling the healthcare provider, or repeating the vital signs in 30 minutes are not necessary based on the vital signs obtained and the action of verapamil in this scenario.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intravenous antibiotic to a client with a central venous catheter. Which action is most important?

• A. Flush the catheter with heparin.
• B. Change the dressing at the insertion site.
• C. Check for blood return before administering the antibiotic.
• D. Use sterile technique when accessing the catheter.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Using sterile technique when accessing the catheter is crucial to prevent infection in clients with a central venous catheter. This action helps maintain asepsis and reduces the risk of introducing pathogens into the catheter system. Flushing the catheter with heparin helps prevent occlusion but is not as crucial as ensuring sterile technique. Changing the dressing at the insertion site is important for assessing the site's condition but does not directly impact the administration of the antibiotic. Checking for blood return is essential to ensure proper catheter function, but sterile technique takes precedence to prevent infections.

4. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

5. While assessing a client receiving a blood transfusion, which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C).
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• D. Complaints of feeling cold.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A heart rate of 90 beats per minute requires immediate intervention when assessing a client receiving a blood transfusion. This finding can indicate a potential transfusion reaction, such as a hemolytic reaction or fluid overload, which requires prompt evaluation and management to prevent serious complications. While a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) may indicate a mild fever, it is not typically an immediate concern during a blood transfusion. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range and does not necessitate immediate intervention. Complaints of feeling cold can be addressed but do not indicate an urgent need for intervention compared to the critical nature of a potential transfusion reaction indicated by an elevated heart rate.

Similar Questions