HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
- A. Verify the client's blood type
- B. Ensure the PRBCs are warm
- C. Check the client's vital signs
- D. Obtain the client's consent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verifying the client's blood type is crucial before administering PRBCs to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Checking the client's blood type is essential in blood transfusions. Ensuring the PRBCs are warm is not a priority as the temperature should be within a specific range regardless of the client's preference. Checking the client's vital signs is important but not as crucial as verifying the blood type before a blood transfusion. Obtaining the client's consent is important for any procedure but does not directly impact the safety and success of administering PRBCs.
2. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Empty the bladder using an indwelling urinary catheter
- B. Increase the rate of the IV containing oxytocin (Pitocin)
- C. Assess for shock by determining the blood pressure
- D. Perform gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which action should the nurse take to reduce the client's risk of injury?
- A. Use a 1-inch needle
- B. Select a large muscle for the injection
- C. Aspirate for blood return before injecting
- D. Massage the injection site
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to aspirate for blood return before injecting. This action helps ensure that the needle is not in a blood vessel, reducing the risk of injury. Using a 1-inch needle (Choice A) is a standard length for intramuscular injections but does not directly reduce the risk of injury. Selecting a large muscle for the injection (Choice B) is important for proper medication absorption but does not directly reduce the risk of injury. Massaging the injection site (Choice D) can help with medication absorption but does not reduce the risk of injury.
4. A client with chronic renal failure is being discharged with a prescription for erythropoietin (Epogen). Which statement indicates that the client understands the action of this medication?
- A. It helps my body make red blood cells
- B. It helps prevent infections
- C. It helps my kidneys excrete excess fluid
- D. It helps me breathe easier
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It helps my body make red blood cells.' Erythropoietin is a medication that stimulates the production of red blood cells in the body. Clients with chronic renal failure often develop anemia due to decreased erythropoietin production by the kidneys. This medication helps address that issue by increasing red blood cell production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin does not prevent infections, help kidneys excrete excess fluid, or assist with breathing; its primary action is to boost red blood cell production.
5. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
- B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
- C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
- D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.
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