Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a flaccid bladder is placed on a bladder training program. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?

• A. Use manual pressure to express urine
• B. Perform the Crede maneuver
• C. Apply an external urinary drainage device
• D. Take a warm sitz bath twice a day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform the Crede maneuver. The Crede maneuver is a technique used to manage a flaccid bladder by applying manual pressure over the bladder area to assist in the expulsion of urine. This technique helps promote bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because using manual pressure to express urine is not a standardized technique and may cause harm. Choice C is incorrect as applying an external urinary drainage device does not address the need for bladder training. Choice D is unrelated to bladder training for a flaccid bladder.

2. A 24-year-old female client who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is taking ibuprofen (Motrin) for pain relief. Which information should the nurse provide the client about taking this medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals
• B. Take the medication with an antacid
• C. Report any changes in stool color to your healthcare provider
• D. Avoid taking aspirin while using this medication

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any changes in stool color to the healthcare provider. This is important because changes in stool color can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen. Choice A is incorrect because while taking ibuprofen with meals can help reduce stomach upset, it is not the most crucial information to provide. Choice B is incorrect as taking ibuprofen with an antacid is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is also incorrect because while ibuprofen and aspirin are both NSAIDs, they can be taken together under certain circumstances, but it's important to be cautious and follow healthcare provider recommendations.

3. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
• B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
• C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
• D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory value that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. PTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is specifically sensitive to heparin's anticoagulant effects. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important laboratory values in other contexts, they are not specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
• B. Administer a glucagon injection
• C. Provide a snack with protein
• D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. This will help raise the blood glucose levels quickly. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia as protein takes longer to raise blood glucose levels. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be beneficial after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to raise the blood glucose levels promptly.

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