HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A client who has a flaccid bladder is placed on a bladder training program. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
- A. Use manual pressure to express urine
- B. Perform the Crede maneuver
- C. Apply an external urinary drainage device
- D. Take a warm sitz bath twice a day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform the Crede maneuver. The Crede maneuver is a technique used to manage a flaccid bladder by applying manual pressure over the bladder area to assist in the expulsion of urine. This technique helps promote bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because using manual pressure to express urine is not a standardized technique and may cause harm. Choice C is incorrect as applying an external urinary drainage device does not address the need for bladder training. Choice D is unrelated to bladder training for a flaccid bladder.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine sulfate via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory status
- B. Teach the client how to use the PCA pump
- C. Evaluate the client's pain level
- D. Assess the client's pain level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving opioids like morphine sulfate via a PCA pump, the most critical action for the nurse to implement is to monitor the client's respiratory status. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring respiratory status allows for early detection of any signs of respiratory compromise. Teaching the client how to use the PCA pump, evaluating pain level, and assessing pain level are important aspects of care but ensuring the client's safety by monitoring respiratory status takes precedence due to the potential risks associated with opioid administration.
3. When performing an admission assessment of a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. When did your symptoms first begin?
- B. Can you describe the pain and how it feels?
- C. Do you have any changes in vision?
- D. Have you experienced any seizures?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When assessing a client diagnosed with a brain tumor, asking about seizures is crucial because they can be a common symptom associated with brain tumors. Seizures in this context could provide valuable information regarding the progression and impact of the brain tumor on the client's neurological status. Choices A, B, and C are important questions in a general assessment, but when specifically focusing on a client with a brain tumor, inquiring about seizures takes priority due to its direct relevance to the condition.
4. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. It dissolves blood clots
- B. It prevents the blood from clotting
- C. It thins the blood
- D. It decreases the risk of infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.
5. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit?
- A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
- B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago
- C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
- D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from the dehydration caused by severe diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring a stable client who is learning self-care, such as self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, provides the needed telemetry-monitored bed without compromising the client's care. Choice B should not be transferred as the client is ambulatory following surgery and does not require telemetry monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred as the client is wearing a sling immobilizer following pacemaker insertion, which requires close monitoring. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to severe dehydration, necessitating telemetry monitoring for immediate intervention.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access