HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A client who has a flaccid bladder is placed on a bladder training program. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
- A. Use manual pressure to express urine
- B. Perform the Crede maneuver
- C. Apply an external urinary drainage device
- D. Take a warm sitz bath twice a day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform the Crede maneuver. The Crede maneuver is a technique used to manage a flaccid bladder by applying manual pressure over the bladder area to assist in the expulsion of urine. This technique helps promote bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because using manual pressure to express urine is not a standardized technique and may cause harm. Choice C is incorrect as applying an external urinary drainage device does not address the need for bladder training. Choice D is unrelated to bladder training for a flaccid bladder.
2. A client who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) reports to the nurse of having a loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of ciprofloxacin.
- B. Instruct the client to take ciprofloxacin with food.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
- D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on ciprofloxacin reports loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms. These symptoms could indicate a need for a change in medication or additional treatment, which the healthcare provider would need to assess. Instructing the client to take ciprofloxacin with food (choice B) may help with gastrointestinal upset but will not address the reported symptoms. Reassuring the client (choice A) is important for providing emotional support but does not address the need for further evaluation. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice D) is generally beneficial but may not directly address the specific side effects reported.
3. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
- B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
- C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
- D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.
4. The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older client who has difficulty swallowing and has a history of aspiration pneumonia. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a speech therapy consult
- B. Elevate the head of the bed
- C. Check the client's lung sounds
- D. Implement aspiration precautions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps prevent aspiration in clients with swallowing difficulties by reducing the risk of food or fluids entering the airway. While obtaining a speech therapy consult (Choice A) is important, the immediate priority is to ensure the client's safety by positioning them properly. Checking the client's lung sounds (Choice C) and implementing aspiration precautions (Choice D) are also essential steps but should follow the immediate intervention of elevating the head of the bed to prevent aspiration.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min and a heart rate of 110 beats/min. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator
- B. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
- C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation level
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to assess the client's oxygen saturation level. In a client with COPD and abnormal respiratory and heart rates, determining the oxygen saturation helps evaluate the adequacy of oxygen exchange and the severity of respiratory distress. Administering a bronchodilator (choice A) can be appropriate but assessing oxygen saturation takes priority. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing (choice B) may not address the immediate need for oxygenation assessment. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (choice D) is important but typically follows the initial assessment of oxygen saturation.
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