HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A client who has a flaccid bladder is placed on a bladder training program. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
- A. Use manual pressure to express urine
- B. Perform the Crede maneuver
- C. Apply an external urinary drainage device
- D. Take a warm sitz bath twice a day
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Perform the Crede maneuver. The Crede maneuver is a technique used to manage a flaccid bladder by applying manual pressure over the bladder area to assist in the expulsion of urine. This technique helps promote bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because using manual pressure to express urine is not a standardized technique and may cause harm. Choice C is incorrect as applying an external urinary drainage device does not address the need for bladder training. Choice D is unrelated to bladder training for a flaccid bladder.
2. A mother brings her 3-week-old infant to the clinic because the baby vomits after eating and always seems hungry. Further assessment indicates that the infant’s vomiting is projectile, and the child seems listless. Which additional assessment finding indicates the possibility of a life-threatening complication?
- A. Irregular palpable pulse
- B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- C. Underweight for age
- D. Crying without tears
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the infant presenting with vomiting, lethargy, and projectile vomiting indicates a potential serious condition. Crying without tears is a sign of dehydration, a critical condition that can lead to life-threatening complications in infants. Dehydration can rapidly worsen an infant's condition, making prompt intervention crucial to prevent further complications. Irregular palpable pulse (Choice A) could indicate a cardiovascular issue but is less immediately life-threatening in this context. Hyperactive bowel sounds (Choice B) are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues rather than a life-threatening complication. Underweight for age (Choice C) may be concerning for growth-related issues but does not directly indicate a life-threatening complication like dehydration does.
3. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?
- A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
- B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
- C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
- D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.
4. A client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on the thorax tells the nurse about having difficulty sleeping. What is the probable cause of this problem?
- A. Frequent cough
- B. Pain
- C. Nocturia
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain. Pain is a common and significant symptom of Herpes Zoster (shingles) that can result in difficulty sleeping. The pain associated with shingles can be intense and persistent, making it challenging for the client to find a comfortable position to sleep. Nocturia (choice C), which is excessive urination during the night, is not directly related to difficulty sleeping in this context. While both frequent cough (choice A) and dyspnea (choice D) can cause sleep disturbances, in a client with Herpes Zoster on the thorax, pain is the most probable cause of sleep difficulty.
5. Which foods should a healthcare provider recommend for a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to avoid?
- A. Fresh fruit and vegetables
- B. Foods sweetened with aspartame
- C. Bread with honey
- D. Gluten-rich bread
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Foods sweetened with aspartame.' Children with PKU must avoid foods containing aspartame because it breaks down into phenylalanine, which can worsen their condition. Choice A, fresh fruit and vegetables, are generally healthy and safe for individuals with PKU. Choice C, bread with honey, is also safe unless the bread contains artificial sweeteners like aspartame. Choice D, gluten-rich bread, is not specifically problematic for individuals with PKU unless it contains aspartame or other substances high in phenylalanine.