Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a community education program on osteoporosis. Which instruction is helpful in preventing bone loss and promoting bone formation?

• A. Recommend weight-bearing physical activity.
• B. Encourage a diet high in dairy products.
• C. Suggest vitamin D supplementation.
• D. Advise avoiding caffeine and alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recommend weight-bearing physical activity. Weight-bearing exercises are effective in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis by promoting bone formation. Encouraging a diet high in dairy products (choice B) can provide calcium, but it's not as directly related to bone formation as physical activity. While vitamin D supplementation (choice C) is important for calcium absorption and bone health, it is not directly involved in promoting bone formation. Advising to avoid caffeine and alcohol (choice D) can be beneficial for bone health, but it is not as directly related to promoting bone formation as weight-bearing physical activity.

2. After multiple attempts to stop drinking, an adult male is admitted to the medical intensive care unit (MICU) with delirium tremens. He is tachycardic, diaphoretic, restless, and disoriented. Which finding indicates a life-threatening condition?

• A. Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves
• B. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure
• C. Restlessness and anxiety
• D. Diaphoresis and dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Widening QRS complexes and flat T waves. In the context of an adult male with delirium tremens and symptoms like tachycardia, diaphoresis, restlessness, and disorientation, the presence of widening QRS complexes and flat T waves on an ECG suggests severe electrolyte imbalance, particularly hypokalemia. This severe electrolyte imbalance can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Tachycardia and elevated blood pressure (choice B) can be expected in delirium tremens but do not directly indicate a life-threatening condition as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do. Restlessness and anxiety (choice C) are common symptoms of delirium tremens but do not specifically signify a life-threatening condition. Diaphoresis and dehydration (choice D) are also common in delirium tremens but do not directly point towards a life-threatening electrolyte imbalance as widening QRS complexes and flat T waves do.

3. During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice
• B. Call 911 to summon emergency assistance
• C. Check the client for lacerations or fractures
• D. Assess client's blood sugar level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take after an elderly client with diabetes slips and falls is to check the client for lacerations or fractures. This is crucial to assess for any immediate physical injuries that may need immediate attention. Giving orange juice or assessing the blood sugar level may be important later but checking for injuries takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Calling 911 should be considered if there are severe injuries or if the client is in distress, but checking for lacerations or fractures is the priority at the moment.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes carboprost tromethamine (Hemabate) 250 mcg IM for a multigravida postpartum client who is experiencing heavy, bright red vaginal bleeding. Prior to administering this medication, which intervention should the RN implement?

• A. Give the prescribed antiemetic.
• B. Administer IV fluids.
• C. Prepare for possible blood transfusion.
• D. Monitor vital signs every 5 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hemabate can cause severe nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea, so administering the prescribed antiemetic can help manage these side effects. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication in the scenario to administer IV fluids. Choice C is not the priority at this stage as the client's condition does not necessitate an immediate blood transfusion. Choice D is unnecessary every 5 minutes; monitoring vital signs should be done but not at such a high frequency.

5. The mother of an adolescent tells the clinic nurse, 'My son has athlete's foot. I have been applying triple antibiotic ointment for two days, but there has been no improvement.' What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Antibiotics take two weeks to become effective against fungal infections like athlete's foot.
• B. Continue using the ointment for a full week, even after the symptoms disappear.
• C. Applying too much ointment can reduce its effectiveness. Apply a thin layer to prevent maceration.
• D. Stop using the ointment and encourage complete drying of the feet and wearing clean socks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Athlete's foot (tinea pedis) is a fungal infection, not a bacterial infection that would respond to antibiotics. The primary management involves keeping the feet well-ventilated, dry after bathing, and wearing clean socks to prevent moisture buildup, which promotes fungal growth. Using an antibiotic ointment like triple antibiotic ointment is not effective for treating athlete's foot. Therefore, the nurse should advise the mother to stop using the antibiotic ointment and focus on promoting proper foot hygiene to manage the fungal infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the fungal nature of athlete's foot and the ineffectiveness of antibiotic ointments in its treatment.

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