HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. The nurse is preparing a community education program on osteoporosis. Which instruction is helpful in preventing bone loss and promoting bone formation?
- A. Recommend weight-bearing physical activity.
- B. Encourage a diet high in dairy products.
- C. Suggest vitamin D supplementation.
- D. Advise avoiding caffeine and alcohol.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recommend weight-bearing physical activity. Weight-bearing exercises are effective in maintaining bone density and preventing osteoporosis by promoting bone formation. Encouraging a diet high in dairy products (choice B) can provide calcium, but it's not as directly related to bone formation as physical activity. While vitamin D supplementation (choice C) is important for calcium absorption and bone health, it is not directly involved in promoting bone formation. Advising to avoid caffeine and alcohol (choice D) can be beneficial for bone health, but it is not as directly related to promoting bone formation as weight-bearing physical activity.
2. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a neurological assessment.
- B. Administer oxygen therapy.
- C. Monitor the client's urine output.
- D. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a neurological assessment. In a client with chronic heart failure presenting with confusion, the priority is to assess neurological status to rule out potential causes such as hypoxia or other complications. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice B) is important but assessing the neurological status takes precedence in this scenario. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and obtaining an ECG (Choice D) may be necessary but are not the initial priority when a client presents with confusion alongside shortness of breath.
3. A nurse plans to call the healthcare provider to report an 0600 serum potassium level of 2 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI), but the charge nurse tells the nurse that the healthcare provider does not like to receive early morning calls and will make rounds later in the morning. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Contact the healthcare provider immediately to report the laboratory value regardless of the advice.
- B. Document the finding and report it when the healthcare provider makes rounds.
- C. Notify the charge nurse that you are following the chain of command.
- D. Administer a potassium supplement and notify the provider later.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A nurse should contact the healthcare provider immediately to report a critically low potassium level of 2 mEq/L. Potassium levels below the normal range can lead to life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification is essential to ensure timely intervention and prevent harm to the patient. Option B is incorrect as delaying reporting such a critical value can jeopardize patient safety. Option C is not the priority in this situation; the focus should be on patient care. Option D is dangerous and inappropriate as administering a potassium supplement without healthcare provider's guidance can be harmful, especially with a critically low level.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
- B. Temperature of 100.4°F
- C. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
- D. Urine output of 30 ml/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with septic shock, a heart rate of 120 beats per minute is a critical clinical finding that requires immediate intervention. A rapid heart rate can indicate worsening sepsis and inadequate tissue perfusion. Correcting the underlying cause of the tachycardia and stabilizing the heart rate is crucial in managing septic shock. The other options, while important, do not represent an immediate threat to the patient's condition. A blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg may be expected in septic shock, a temperature of 100.4°F is mildly elevated, and a urine output of 30 ml/hour, though decreased, may not be an immediate concern in the context of septic shock.
5. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention for a client receiving enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube?
- A. Auscultate the client's lungs for breath sounds
- B. Check the client's blood glucose level
- C. Monitor the client's bowel sounds
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is crucial for clients receiving enteral feedings via a nasogastric tube to prevent aspiration. Aspiration can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Auscultating the client's lungs for breath sounds (choice A) is important but not as urgent as preventing aspiration. Checking the client's blood glucose level (choice B) and monitoring bowel sounds (choice C) are also essential aspects of care for a client receiving enteral feedings, but they do not take precedence over preventing aspiration.
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