HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles is most concerning in a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen as it indicates increased work of breathing, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is acceptable in a client with COPD. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not as critical as the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles may be present in clients with COPD due to underlying lung changes but do not require immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.
2. A client who is at 36 weeks gestation is admitted with severe preeclampsia. After a 6-gram loading dose of magnesium sulfate is administered, an intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate at a rate of 2 grams/hour is initiated. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Urine output of 20 ml/hour
- B. Blood pressure of 138/88
- C. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min
- D. Temperature of 99.8°F
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A urine output of less than 30 ml/hour indicates that the kidneys are being affected by the high level of magnesium sulfate. This decreased urine output can lead to magnesium toxicity and impaired kidney function. Blood pressure of 138/88 is within normal limits for pregnancy and does not indicate an immediate concern related to magnesium sulfate. A respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min is normal, and a temperature of 99.8°F is slightly elevated but not a priority in the context of severe preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate administration.
3. An elderly client seems confused and reports the onset of nausea, dysuria, and urgency with incontinence. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Auscultate for renal bruits
- B. Obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen
- C. Use a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones
- D. Begin to strain the client's urine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: This elderly client is presenting symptoms consistent with a urinary tract infection (UTI), such as confusion, nausea, dysuria, urgency, and incontinence. The best course of action for the nurse is to obtain a clean catch mid-stream specimen. This specimen will help identify the causative agent of the UTI, allowing for targeted treatment with an appropriate anti-infective agent. Auscultating for renal bruits (Choice A) is not indicated in this scenario as the client's symptoms point towards a UTI rather than a renal issue. Using a dipstick to measure for urinary ketones (Choice C) is not relevant in the context of UTI symptoms. Beginning to strain the client's urine (Choice D) would not address the need to identify the causative agent for targeted treatment.
4. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The nurse notices the client has more energy and is giving her belongings away. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Support the client by praising her progress.
- B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
- C. Reassure the client about the effectiveness of antidepressant drugs.
- D. Advise the client to keep her belongings for discharge.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself because increased energy and giving away belongings can be signs of suicidal ideation. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of self-harm. Choice C is incorrect because reassurance about medication effectiveness may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the client's current behavior without addressing the underlying concern of potential self-harm.
5. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute
- B. Presence of a new murmur
- C. INR of 2.5
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The presence of a new murmur in a client with atrial fibrillation may indicate a valvular problem or other complications, requiring immediate reporting. A heart rate of 58 beats per minute is within the normal range for some individuals with atrial fibrillation, so it is not an immediate concern. An INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating appropriate anticoagulation. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access