the nurse is planning care for a client who is diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease pvd and has a history of heart failure the nurse should deve
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Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. The client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and a history of heart failure may have a low tolerance for exercise due to:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased blood flow. In clients with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) and a history of heart failure, decreased blood flow due to heart failure can result in reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. This reduced oxygen supply can lead to low exercise tolerance. Increased blood flow (Choice B) is not typically associated with reduced exercise tolerance in these clients. Decreased pain (Choice C) and increased blood viscosity (Choice D) are not the primary factors contributing to low exercise tolerance in this scenario.

2. A nurse cares for adult clients who experience urge incontinence. For which client should the nurse plan a habit training program?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a bladder training program to succeed in a client with urge incontinence, the client must be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate. Habit training will work best for a confused client. This includes going to the bathroom (or being assisted to the bathroom) at set times. The other clients may benefit from other types of bladder training. A confused client may need structured assistance to establish a regular bathroom routine, which can help manage urge incontinence effectively. Clients with diabetes mellitus, kidney failure, or arthritis may require different strategies tailored to their specific conditions.

3. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.

4. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving education on managing fluid intake. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. Clients with chronic renal failure should not skip dialysis sessions, as this can lead to serious complications. Dialysis is crucial for managing fluid and electrolyte balance in these clients. Choice A is incorrect because clients with renal failure often have fluid restrictions. Choice B is incorrect as high-sodium foods can worsen fluid retention in clients with renal failure. Choice D is incorrect because dietary restrictions are important in managing chronic renal failure, and eating whatever one wants can lead to further complications.

5. In a patient with pneumonia, what is the primary goal of treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of treating pneumonia is to eliminate the infection. Antibiotics are commonly used to target the specific pathogen causing pneumonia. While reducing inflammation and preventing complications are important aspects of treatment, the key focus initially is on eradicating the infectious agent to improve the patient's condition and prevent further spread of the infection.

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