HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A client expresses difficulty voiding in public places. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Offer to turn on the faucet in the bathroom to help stimulate urination.
- B. Suggest a prescription for a diuretic to increase urine output.
- C. Propose moving to a room with a private bathroom to enhance comfort.
- D. Close the curtain to provide maximum privacy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize the client's privacy when addressing issues related to voiding discomfort in public places. Closing the curtain in the current room would offer immediate privacy and support the client's needs. Turning on the faucet is not an evidence-based intervention for voiding difficulties. Prescribing a diuretic is not appropriate without further assessment. While moving to a room with a private bathroom might be ideal, it may not be immediately feasible, making ensuring privacy in the current setting the most appropriate action.
2. Why is lactated Ringer’s solution given to a patient experiencing vomiting and diarrhea?
- A. To increase interstitial and intracellular hydration
- B. To maintain plasma volume over time
- C. To pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid
- D. To replace water and electrolytes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution commonly used to replace water and electrolytes lost due to conditions like vomiting and diarrhea. It helps to restore fluid balance by replacing the lost volume and electrolytes. Option A is incorrect because hypotonic fluids, not lactated Ringer’s solution, increase interstitial and intracellular hydration. Option B is incorrect as colloidal solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, are used to maintain plasma volume over time. Option C is incorrect as hypertonic solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid.
3. A client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated Ringer's intravenously to be infused over 6 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is needed, round to the nearest whole number.)
- A. 167 mL/hr
- B. 200 mL/hr
- C. 83 mL/hr
- D. 111 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct infusion rate is 167 mL/hr. This is calculated by dividing the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time (6 hours), resulting in 166.67 mL/hr, which should be rounded to the nearest whole number as 167 mL/hr. This calculation ensures a steady infusion rate over the specified time frame. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the volume and time provided in the prescription.
4. After checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing, the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post-anesthesia care has a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours. What priority nursing action should be implemented?
- A. Report the findings to the surgeon.
- B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Apply manual pressure to the bladder.
- D. Increase the IV flow rate for 15 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's priority action should be to report the findings to the surgeon. An adult should typically produce about 60 ml of urine per hour, so a dark, concentrated, and low urine output of 54 ml over 2 hours raises concerns. This change in urine output may indicate issues such as dehydration, renal problems, or inadequate fluid intake. Reporting this finding to the surgeon is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention. Irrigating the catheter, applying manual pressure to the bladder, or increasing the IV flow rate are not appropriate actions based on the information provided and could potentially worsen the situation.
5. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?
- A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
- B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
- C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
- D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.
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