Nursing Elites

1. A nurse administers scopolamine as prescribed to a client in preparation for surgery. For which side effect of this medication does the nurse monitor the client?

• A. Pupil constriction
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Complaints of dry mouth
• D. Complaints of feeling sweaty

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Complaints of feeling sweaty.' Scopolamine, an anticholinergic medication, commonly causes the side effect of decreased sweating, not increased urine output or pupil constriction. While dry mouth is a possible side effect, it is less likely than the altered sweating pattern. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for complaints of feeling sweaty due to the potential side effect of decreased sweating associated with scopolamine.

2. A client recovering from a cystoscopy is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment findings should alert the nurse to urgently contact the health care provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Decrease in urine output
• B. Blood clots present in the urine
• C. Prescription for metformin
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a cystoscopy, the nurse should monitor urine output and promptly contact the provider if there is a decrease or absence of urine output. Additionally, the nurse should assess for blood in the urine. While some pink-tinged urine may be expected, the presence of gross bleeding or blood clots warrants immediate provider notification. Tolerating oral fluids is a positive sign and does not require urgent intervention. Metformin would be a concern if the client received contrast dye, which is not used in a cystoscopy. A burning sensation when urinating is a common post-procedure experience and does not necessitate contacting the provider. Therefore, choices A and B are the correct answers as they indicate potentially serious complications that require immediate attention, while choices C and D do not align with urgent concerns following a cystoscopy.

3. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been experiencing severe reflux during sleep. Which recommendation by the nurse is most effective to assist the client?

• A. Losing weight.
• B. Decreasing caffeine intake.
• C. Avoiding large meals.
• D. Raising the head of the bed on blocks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to raise the head of the bed on blocks (reverse Trendelenburg position). This elevation helps reduce reflux by using gravity to keep stomach contents from flowing back into the esophagus during sleep. Losing weight (Choice A) could be beneficial in managing GERD, but it may not be as effective for immediate relief during sleep. Decreasing caffeine intake (Choice B) and avoiding large meals (Choice C) are also valuable recommendations to manage GERD; however, they may not specifically address the issue of reflux during sleep as directly and effectively as elevating the head of the bed.

4. If a client displays risk factors for coronary artery disease, such as smoking cigarettes, eating a diet high in saturated fat, or leading a sedentary lifestyle, techniques of behavior modification may be used to help the client change the behavior. The nurse can best reinforce new adaptive behaviors by:

• A. Explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health.
• B. Withholding praise until the new behavior is well established.
• C. Rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed.
• D. Instilling mild fear in the client to extinguish the behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fundamental principle of behavior modification is that behavior that is rewarded is more likely to be continued. Therefore, rewarding the client whenever the acceptable behavior is performed is the best approach to reinforce new adaptive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because simply explaining how the risk factor behaviors lead to poor health may not be as effective in promoting behavior change compared to positive reinforcement. Choice B is incorrect because withholding praise can hinder progress and motivation for the client. Choice D is incorrect because instilling fear is not a recommended method in behavior modification. It can lead to negative psychological effects and is not a sustainable approach to behavior change.

5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with left-sided heart failure?

• A. Administering IV fluids.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering diuretics.
• D. Administering antihypertensives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with left-sided heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation. In left-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump oxygen-rich blood to the body, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues. Administering oxygen can help alleviate symptoms of hypoxia and reduce the workload on the heart. IV fluids (Choice A) may exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, diuretics (Choice C) are used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure, and antihypertensives (Choice D) are more suitable for managing hypertension, which may be a comorbidity in heart failure but are not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

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