Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention is most helpful in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains'?

• A. Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen.
• B. Using a breast pump.
• C. Massaging the abdomen.
• D. Giving oxytocic medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen is the most helpful intervention in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains.' This position provides counter-pressure and support to the uterus, helping to alleviate discomfort and promote uterine involution. Choice B, using a breast pump, is not effective in relieving afterpains as it focuses on milk expression. Massaging the abdomen (Choice C) may help with discomfort but does not provide the same level of support as lying prone with a pillow. Giving oxytocic medications (Choice D) is not typically the first-line intervention for afterpains unless there are specific medical indications.

2. A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.
• B. RhoGAM is not necessary unless all of her pregnancies are Rh-positive.
• C. The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.
• D. The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative individuals after exposure to Rh-positive blood to prevent the development of antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive babies during subsequent pregnancies. By refusing RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant, the mother risks developing these antibodies, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that receiving RhoGAM prevents the formation of maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood, safeguarding the health of future babies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because RhoGAM is necessary after exposure to Rh-positive blood, regardless of the Rh status of future pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately convey the purpose of RhoGAM administration. Choice D is incorrect because RhoGAM is specifically given after exposure to Rh-positive blood, not when the baby is Rh-negative.

3. When a client delivers a viable infant but experiences excessive uncontrolled vaginal bleeding after the IV Pitocin infusion, what information is most important for the nurse to provide when notifying the healthcare provider?

• A. Maternal blood pressure
• B. Estimated blood loss
• C. Length of labor
• D. Amount of IV fluids administered

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client is experiencing excessive uncontrolled vaginal bleeding post-delivery, the most crucial information for the nurse to provide the healthcare provider is the maternal blood pressure. Maternal blood pressure can help assess the severity of the bleeding and guide immediate interventions to stabilize the client's condition. Estimated blood loss, length of labor, and amount of IV fluids administered are important pieces of information but in this scenario, maternal blood pressure takes precedence as it directly indicates the client's current hemodynamic status.

4. A client who is 32 weeks' gestation comes to the women's health clinic and reports nausea and vomiting. On examination, the nurse notes that the client has an elevated blood pressure. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Inspect the client's face for edema.
• B. Ascertain the frequency of headaches.
• C. Evaluate for a history of cluster headaches.
• D. Observe and time the client's contractions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inspecting the client's face for edema is crucial to assess for preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy. Edema, particularly facial edema, can be a significant indicator of preeclampsia, prompting the need for further evaluation and management to ensure the well-being of both the client and the unborn child.

5. The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
• C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
• D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client experiences a return to red bleeding after transitioning to pink and white, it may indicate possible complications like hemorrhage or retained placental fragments. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and promptly notify the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management of these potentially serious postpartum complications. Choice B is incorrect as assuming a knee-chest position is not the appropriate action for red bleeding postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the uterus without professional assessment can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect because red bleeding after transitioning is not normal and should be evaluated promptly.

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