Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention is most helpful in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains'?

• A. Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen.
• B. Using a breast pump.
• C. Massaging the abdomen.
• D. Giving oxytocic medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen is the most helpful intervention in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains.' This position provides counter-pressure and support to the uterus, helping to alleviate discomfort and promote uterine involution. Choice B, using a breast pump, is not effective in relieving afterpains as it focuses on milk expression. Massaging the abdomen (Choice C) may help with discomfort but does not provide the same level of support as lying prone with a pillow. Giving oxytocic medications (Choice D) is not typically the first-line intervention for afterpains unless there are specific medical indications.

2. When should the LPN/LVN encourage the laboring client to begin pushing?

• A. When there is only an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix left.
• B. When the client describes the need to have a bowel movement.
• C. When the cervix is completely dilated.
• D. When the cervix is completely effaced.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should encourage the laboring client to begin pushing when the cervix is completely dilated to 10 centimeters. Pushing before full dilation can lead to cervical injury and ineffective labor progress. By waiting for complete dilation, the client can push effectively, aiding in the descent of the baby through the birth canal. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pushing before complete dilation can be harmful and may not effectively help in the descent of the baby. The presence of an anterior or posterior lip of the cervix, the urge to have a bowel movement, or complete effacement of the cervix are not indicators for the initiation of pushing during labor.

3. The caregiver observes a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate (iron drops), followed by 2 ounces of orange juice. What should the caregiver do next?

• A. Tell the mother to follow the iron drops with infant formula instead of orange juice.
• B. Suggest placing the iron drops in the orange juice and then feeding the infant.
• C. Instruct the mother to feed the infant nothing for 30 minutes after giving the iron drops.
• D. Give the mother positive feedback about the way she administered the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The high vitamin C content in orange juice aids in the absorption of iron. Providing positive feedback to the mother for administering the iron drops with orange juice is appropriate as it enhances iron absorption, benefiting the infant. Encouraging and acknowledging correct medication administration can help reinforce good practices and build confidence in the caregiver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the beneficial practice of administering iron drops with orange juice, which enhances iron absorption. Changing the method of administration based on incorrect assumptions or instructing to withhold feeding after giving iron drops is unnecessary and not evidence-based.

4. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct following the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is at 40-weeks gestation?

• A. Maternal blood pressure.
• B. Level of pain sensation
• C. Station of presenting part.
• D. Variability of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following the administration of epidural anesthesia, the most crucial assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct is monitoring maternal blood pressure. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension as a common side effect, which can have significant implications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, close monitoring of maternal blood pressure is essential to detect and manage any hypotensive episodes promptly. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments during labor and delivery, but in this specific scenario of post-epidural anesthesia, monitoring maternal blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential risk of hypotension.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?

• A. Gestational diabetes.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Urinary tract infection.
• D. Swelling in lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.

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