HESI RN
Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. At 39-weeks gestation, a multigravida is having a nonstress test (NST), the fetal heart rate (FHR) has remained non-reactive during 30 minutes of evaluation. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Initiate an intravenous infusion.
- B. Observe the FHR pattern for 30 more minutes.
- C. Schedule a biophysical profile.
- D. Place an acoustic stimulator on the abdomen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In cases where the fetal heart rate remains non-reactive during an NST, using an acoustic stimulator on the abdomen can help stimulate fetal movement and promote heart rate reactivity. This intervention aims to assess the fetus's well-being and response to external stimuli, which can provide valuable information about fetal health status.
2. The LPN/LVN is preparing a client with a term pregnancy who is in active labor for an amniotomy. What equipment should the nurse have available at the client's bedside?
- A. Litmus paper.
- B. Fetal scalp electrode.
- C. A sterile glove.
- D. Needle and Thread
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For performing an amniotomy, the nurse should have a sterile glove to maintain asepsis and an amniotic hook to rupture the amniotic sac. Litmus paper is not required for this procedure, and a fetal scalp electrode is used for fetal monitoring, not for an amniotomy.
3. A community health nurse visits a family in which a 16-year-old unmarried daughter is pregnant with her first child and is at 32-weeks gestation. The client tells the nurse that she has been having intermittent back pain since the night before. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Ask the client’s mother to call an ambulance for transport to the hospital immediately.
- B. Determine what physical activities the client has performed for the past 24 hours.
- C. Teach the client how to perform pelvic rock exercises and observe for correct feedback.
- D. Ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to ask the client if she has experienced any recent changes in vaginal discharge. Changes in vaginal discharge can indicate preterm labor, making it crucial to assess promptly. This information will help determine if the client needs immediate medical attention and appropriate interventions to prevent preterm birth and ensure the well-being of the mother and the baby. Option A is not the priority as back pain alone does not warrant immediate ambulance transport. Option B is less relevant in this context as the focus should be on immediate concerns related to pregnancy. Option C is not the priority as addressing back pain should come after ruling out urgent pregnancy-related issues.
4. Why is complete bedrest necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III?
- A. Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle tissue.
- B. We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can ensure that will happen.
- C. I know you're upset. Would you like to talk about some activities you could do while in bed?
- D. Labor is difficult, and you need to use this time to rest before assuming child-caring duties.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Complete bedrest is necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III to reduce the workload on the heart, lower oxygen consumption, and prevent complications associated with cardiac conditions like mitral stenosis. By remaining in bed, the client can help maintain cardiac function and promote a safer pregnancy outcome. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific reason related to the client's medical condition. Choice C is not addressing the medical necessity of bedrest for this particular client. Choice D is irrelevant and does not explain the importance of bedrest for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III.
5. A pregnant woman in her first trimester is experiencing watery vaginal discharge. What should the nurse tell her?
- A. Inform her that it is normal.
- B. Advise her to see a doctor immediately.
- C. Suggest using panty liners.
- D. Suggest a change in diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informing the pregnant woman that watery vaginal discharge is normal during the first trimester is crucial to providing reassurance and reducing anxiety. This discharge, known as leukorrhea, is common during pregnancy due to increased estrogen levels and increased blood flow to the pelvic area. It helps maintain a healthy balance of bacteria in the vagina and protects the birth canal from infection. Advising the woman to see a doctor immediately may cause unnecessary alarm, while suggesting the use of panty liners can help manage the discharge comfortably. Suggesting a change in diet is not relevant to addressing watery vaginal discharge in this scenario.
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