HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. During a neurologic assessment of a client with a suspected stroke, which finding is most concerning?
- A. Unilateral facial droop
- B. Slurred speech
- C. Weakness in one arm
- D. Sudden loss of consciousness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sudden loss of consciousness in a client with a suspected stroke is the most concerning finding as it indicates a more severe neurological event, such as brain stem involvement or hemorrhage, requiring immediate intervention. While unilateral facial droop, slurred speech, and weakness in one arm are all common signs of a stroke, sudden loss of consciousness signifies a critical condition that needs urgent attention and evaluation to prevent further complications.
2. A client in heart failure (HF) presents with weakness and poor urine output. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?
- A. Heart rate of 122 bpm and respiratory rate of 28.
- B. Yellow sputum expectorated.
- C. Temperature of 100.5°F (38.1°C).
- D. Shortness of breath on exertion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated temperature may indicate infection and should be treated immediately in a client with heart failure.
3. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse teach the client to monitor for?
- A. Monitor for a persistent cough.
- B. Monitor for bradycardia and dizziness.
- C. Report any signs of swelling or difficulty breathing.
- D. Monitor for headache and blurred vision.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with a common side effect of a persistent dry cough. This cough can be bothersome to the client and should be reported to their healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bradycardia, dizziness, swelling, difficulty breathing, headache, and blurred vision are not typically associated with lisinopril use.
4. A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?
- A. Anticholinergics
- B. Beta blockers
- C. Alpha blockers
- D. Diuretics
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.
5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives at the clinic reporting episodes of weakness and palpitations. Which finding should the nurse identify may indicate an emerging situation?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. Fingertips feel numb
- C. Reduced deep tendon reflexes
- D. Elevated fasting blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Numb fingertips may suggest neuropathy, a common complication of diabetes that may indicate a worsening condition. Episodes of weakness and palpitations, combined with neuropathy symptoms, could also suggest hypoglycemia or poor glycemic control, requiring further investigation. The other choices are less likely to be directly related to the client's current symptoms. While a history of hypertension is a common comorbidity in clients with diabetes, it may not directly explain the reported weakness and palpitations. Reduced deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of certain neurological conditions rather than acute emerging situations related to the client's current symptoms. An elevated fasting blood glucose level is expected in a client with type 2 diabetes and may not be the primary indicator of an emerging situation in this context.
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