Nursing Elites

1. A client with multiple sclerosis is experiencing fatigue. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to increase physical activity.
• B. Encourage the client to take rest breaks during activities.
• C. Administer a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue.
• D. Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques. Energy conservation techniques are crucial in managing fatigue in multiple sclerosis. These techniques involve prioritizing activities, pacing oneself, and taking rest breaks to prevent overexertion, which can exacerbate fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase physical activity (choice A) may worsen fatigue if not done with proper energy conservation. Taking rest breaks during activities (choice B) is important but falls secondary to teaching energy conservation techniques. Administering a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue (choice C) should not be the priority as non-pharmacological interventions like energy conservation should be attempted first.

2. A client with a tracheostomy develops copious, thick secretions. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Increase the client's fluid intake.
• B. Perform tracheal suctioning.
• C. Administer a mucolytic agent.
• D. Increase the humidity of the oxygen source.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the humidity of the oxygen source. This action helps thin thick secretions, making them easier to clear from the tracheostomy tube. Increasing fluid intake (Choice A) can be beneficial in some cases but addressing humidity is more specific to managing thick secretions in a client with a tracheostomy. Tracheal suctioning (Choice B) should be done after attempting to thin the secretions with increased humidity. Administering a mucolytic agent (Choice C) is a possible intervention but typically comes after addressing humidity and before resorting to suctioning to avoid unnecessary invasiveness.

3. After placing a stethoscope to auscultate S1 and S2 heart sounds, what should the nurse do to check for an S3 heart sound?

• A. Switch to the diaphragm of the stethoscope to hear any abnormal sounds
• B. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope at the same location
• C. Listen at a different location over the aortic area
• D. Switch to the apical area and reassess for S3 sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess for an S3 heart sound, the nurse should listen with the bell of the stethoscope. An S3 heart sound is often low-pitched and best heard with the bell. Choice A is incorrect because switching to the diaphragm is not ideal for detecting low-pitched sounds like an S3. Choice C is incorrect as the S3 heart sound is best heard over the apex of the heart, not the aortic area. Choice D is incorrect because moving to the apical area is appropriate, but the nurse should specifically use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for S3 sounds.

4. An elderly client reports new-onset confusion, nausea, dysuria, and urgency. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate intravenous fluids
• B. Obtain a clean-catch midstream urine specimen
• C. Administer antibiotics
• D. Start a Foley catheter to obtain a sterile sample

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to obtain a clean-catch midstream urine specimen. The client's symptoms of confusion, nausea, dysuria, and urgency are suggestive of a urinary tract infection (UTI). To confirm the diagnosis and identify the causative organism, a urine specimen should be collected before initiating any treatment. Initiating intravenous fluids (Choice A) may be necessary later based on the client's condition but is not the initial priority. Administering antibiotics (Choice C) should be done after confirming the diagnosis through urine culture. Starting a Foley catheter (Choice D) to obtain a sterile sample is more invasive and should not be the first step in the assessment and management of a suspected UTI.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a dose of vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Increase the client’s warfarin dosage to prevent clot formation.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.

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