HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Monitor for elevated blood pressure.
- B. Monitor for ketonuria.
- C. Monitor for peripheral edema.
- D. Monitor for hypokalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.
2. A client with cirrhosis and ascites asks about fluid restriction. What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. Increase the client's fluid intake gradually.
- B. Restrict oral fluids to 1500 ml per day.
- C. Explain the importance of following a low-sodium diet.
- D. Increase dietary protein to reduce fluid retention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Restrict oral fluids to 1500 ml per day.' In clients with cirrhosis and ascites, fluid restriction is essential to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen symptoms of liver failure. Option A is incorrect because increasing fluid intake would exacerbate the issue of fluid overload. Option C, while important, is not the best initial response to the client's question about fluid restriction. Option D is incorrect as increasing dietary protein does not directly address fluid restriction in clients with cirrhosis and ascites.
3. A client in the third trimester of pregnancy reports that she feels some 'lumpy places' in her breasts and that her nipples sometimes leak a yellowish fluid. She has an appointment with her healthcare provider in two weeks. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to immediately see her provider for an evaluation
- B. Assess the fluid for signs of infection
- C. Explain that this normal secretion can be assessed at the next visit
- D. Recommend breast ultrasound to rule out abnormalities
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The yellowish fluid is likely colostrum, a normal finding in late pregnancy as the breasts prepare for lactation. It is common for women in the third trimester to experience 'lumpy places' in the breasts due to increased milk duct development. In this situation, the nurse should educate the client that these findings are normal physiological changes associated with pregnancy. Since the client has an upcoming appointment with her healthcare provider in two weeks, it is appropriate to reassure her that this can be further assessed during that visit. Instructing the client to immediately see her provider (Choice A) is unnecessary as this is a common finding in late pregnancy. Assessing the fluid for signs of infection (Choice B) is not warranted as colostrum leakage is a normal occurrence. Recommending a breast ultrasound (Choice D) is premature without further assessment by the healthcare provider.
4. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 mEq/L?
- A. Losartan
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Metoprolol
- D. Furosemide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia. With potassium levels already elevated at 6.2 mEq/L, withholding Spironolactone is essential to prevent further increase in potassium levels, which could result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Losartan (Choice A) is an angiotensin receptor blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels. Metoprolol (Choice C) is a beta-blocker and also does not impact potassium levels significantly. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so it would not be the medication to withhold in this case.
5. A client is receiving a blood transfusion and develops a fever. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer an antipyretic as prescribed.
- B. Stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Slow the rate of the transfusion.
- D. Continue the transfusion and reassess in 15 minutes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action when a client receiving a blood transfusion develops a fever is to stop the transfusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial to prevent further reactions and ensure prompt intervention. Administering an antipyretic (Choice A) may mask symptoms and delay appropriate treatment. Slowing the rate of the transfusion (Choice C) might not address the underlying cause of the fever. Continuing the transfusion and reassessing in 15 minutes (Choice D) could worsen the client's condition if there is a severe reaction occurring.
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