HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Monitor for elevated blood pressure.
- B. Monitor for ketonuria.
- C. Monitor for peripheral edema.
- D. Monitor for hypokalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.
2. An unresponsive male victim of a diving accident is brought to the emergency department where immediate surgery is required to save his life. No family members are available. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Ask the friend to sign an informed consent.
- B. Notify the unit manager that a court order is needed.
- C. Continue providing life support until a guardian is found.
- D. Proceed with surgery preparation without consent.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In emergency situations where immediate surgery is required to save a patient's life and no family members are available, consent can be waived to proceed with necessary interventions. The priority in this scenario is to proceed with surgery preparation without waiting for consent, as any delay could jeopardize the patient's life. Asking the friend to sign informed consent or notifying the unit manager for a court order would cause unnecessary delays, which are not advisable in this critical situation. Continuing life support until a guardian is found is not the most appropriate action when immediate surgical intervention is necessary.
3. An older client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy is preparing for discharge. What finding requires immediate provider notification?
- A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
- B. No bowel movement since surgery.
- C. No appetite for breakfast.
- D. A positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, a complication after parathyroid surgery that requires immediate attention. This sign is manifested by facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve in front of the ear is tapped, indicating neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. Afebrile with a normal pulse (Choice A) is a normal finding and does not require immediate notification. No bowel movement since surgery (Choice B) is common postoperatively due to anesthesia effects and pain medications and usually resolves within a few days; it does not require immediate notification unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. No appetite for breakfast (Choice C) is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate notification unless it persists and leads to dehydration or malnutrition.
4. In monitoring tissue perfusion in a client following an above the knee amputation (AKA), which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Evaluate closest proximal pulse.
- B. Note amount and color of wound drainage.
- C. Observe for swelling around the stump.
- D. Assess skin elasticity of the stump.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After an amputation, monitoring the pulse closest to the stump is crucial in evaluating tissue perfusion and the overall health of the limb. Swelling and changes in perfusion can indicate complications such as blood clots or infection. Assessing the proximal pulse helps the nurse ensure adequate blood flow to the remaining limb, thereby preventing further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less directly related to monitoring tissue perfusion in this scenario and are more focused on wound healing and stump care.
5. The nurse is administering an intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test. Which technique should the nurse use?
- A. Use a 25-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle
- B. Use a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle
- C. Use a 22-gauge needle at a 45-degree angle
- D. Use a 20-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test should be administered using a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle. This technique ensures that the medication is delivered into the dermis layer of the skin. Choice A is incorrect because a 25-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection. Choice C is incorrect as a 22-gauge needle is also too large and the angle is too steep for an intradermal injection. Choice D is incorrect as a 20-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection, and a 90-degree angle would not deliver the medication accurately into the dermis.
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