Nursing Elites

1. A client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed enoxaparin. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Rotate injection sites to prevent bruising.
• B. Administer the injection in the abdomen only.
• C. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising.
• D. Avoid contact sports to prevent injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to report any unusual bleeding or bruising. Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant, and these symptoms could indicate excessive anticoagulation. Choice A is incorrect because with enoxaparin, injections are usually given in the abdomen, not rotated to different sites. Choice D is not directly related to the medication but is a general precaution for individuals at risk of injury.

2. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Leave the pillows in place and document the action
• B. Inform the UAP that the pillows should be removed immediately
• C. Request that the pillows be replaced with firm padding
• D. Ensure that the side rails are padded and leave the pillows

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the UAP that the pillows should be removed immediately. Soft pillows along the side rails do not provide sufficient protection during a seizure. The pillows could potentially increase the risk of injury, such as hitting the head or limbs against the hard side rails. Requesting firm padding or ensuring that the side rails are padded are not as effective as removing the pillows to prevent harm to the client. Leaving the pillows in place without addressing the potential risks would not be in the best interest of the client's safety.

3. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

• A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
• B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
• C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
• D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

4. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?

• A. Auscultate the bowel sounds.
• B. Palpate the ankles for edema.
• C. Observe the skin for bruising.
• D. Measure the body temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin injections. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. Monitoring hemoglobin is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Serum potassium levels are often monitored in chronic kidney disease, but it is not the primary parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly influenced by erythropoietin injections for chronic kidney disease.

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