HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed enoxaparin. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Rotate injection sites to prevent bruising.
- B. Administer the injection in the abdomen only.
- C. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising.
- D. Avoid contact sports to prevent injury.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to report any unusual bleeding or bruising. Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant, and these symptoms could indicate excessive anticoagulation. Choice A is incorrect because with enoxaparin, injections are usually given in the abdomen, not rotated to different sites. Choice D is not directly related to the medication but is a general precaution for individuals at risk of injury.
2. A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Recent lab tests show decreased serum magnesium. What nursing action is most important?
- A. Observe rhythm on telemetry monitor.
- B. Check for visual difficulties.
- C. Assess for hip and hand joint pain.
- D. Note the most recent hemoglobin level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium plays a crucial role in maintaining normal cardiac rhythms, particularly in patients with cardiac conditions. Abnormal levels can lead to arrhythmias, which is why continuous monitoring of the heart's electrical activity is important. Magnesium's effect on neuromuscular and cardiac function makes it essential to monitor its levels, and any discrepancies can impact treatment decisions. Checking for visual difficulties (choice B) may be important in MG but is not the priority in the context of decreased serum magnesium. Assessing for hip and hand joint pain (choice C) is not directly related to the issue of decreased serum magnesium. Noting the most recent hemoglobin level (choice D) is not the priority in this situation compared to monitoring the cardiac rhythm due to low magnesium levels.
3. During an acute exacerbation of asthma, what is the nurse's first action for a client experiencing this condition?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
- B. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
- C. Reassure the client and encourage deep breathing.
- D. Provide emotional support to reduce anxiety.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action when managing an acute exacerbation of asthma is to administer a bronchodilator as prescribed. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve breathing in individuals experiencing an asthma exacerbation. Checking oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important but not the first action. Reassuring the client and encouraging deep breathing (Choice C) can be beneficial but should come after administering the bronchodilator. Providing emotional support to reduce anxiety (Choice D) is important but is not the initial priority in managing an acute exacerbation of asthma.
4. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
- C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
- D. Assess maternal vital signs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.
5. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?
- A. The client delivered a large baby
- B. She is a gravida 6, para 5
- C. The client had a cesarean delivery
- D. The client had a prolonged labor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.
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