Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation and urinary retention.
• B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
• C. Sedation and blurred vision.
• D. Insomnia and dry mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.

2. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse’s station in a literally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
• D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. The client's symptoms of body contortion and feeling like a monster are indicative of acute dystonia, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. Benztropine can help alleviate these acute dystonic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because changing the antipsychotic medication at this point is not indicated. Choice B is not appropriate as the client's symptoms are likely due to acute dystonia rather than muscle spasms. Choice C is also not the best course of action as the client needs immediate intervention for the acute dystonic reaction.

3. The nurse is completing the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of depression. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?

• A. Body mass index of 21
• B. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL
• C. WBC count of 10,000/mm3
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dL is critically low and requires immediate notification to the healthcare provider as it indicates a potential electrolyte imbalance, which can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and other complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges or not indicative of immediate life-threatening issues. A body mass index of 21 may be considered normal for some individuals, a WBC count of 10,000/mm3 is slightly elevated but not an urgent concern, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within normal limits for an adolescent.

4. A client with an eating disorder is being treated in a behavioral health unit. Which behavior would the nurse expect to see if the client is responding positively to the treatment?

• A. Adherence to the treatment plan and increased self-care activities.
• B. Increased isolation from others.
• C. Frequent complaining about treatment procedures.
• D. Refusal to eat meals provided by the unit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive response to treatment for a client with an eating disorder is indicated by adherence to the treatment plan and an increase in self-care activities. These behaviors show that the client is actively engaging in their treatment and taking steps towards recovery. Option B, increased isolation from others, is not indicative of a positive response to treatment as it may suggest withdrawal or avoidance. Option C, frequent complaining about treatment procedures, is not a behavior that signifies a positive response; it may indicate dissatisfaction or discomfort with the treatment. Option D, refusal to eat meals provided by the unit, is also not a positive response as it could suggest continued resistance to treatment and potential worsening of symptoms.

5. During admission to the psychiatric unit, a female client is extremely anxious and states that she is worried about the sun coming up the next day. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement during the admission process?

• A. Assist the client in developing alternative coping skills.
• B. Remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach.
• C. Ask the client why she is so anxious.
• D. Administer a PRN sedative to help relieve her anxiety.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During admission to a psychiatric unit, it is crucial for the registered nurse to remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach when addressing a client who is extremely anxious. By staying composed and adopting a matter-of-fact demeanor, the nurse can help establish trust and promote a sense of calm in the client. This approach can also convey a sense of reassurance and stability, which can be beneficial in managing the client's anxiety. Assisting the client in developing alternative coping skills (Choice A) may be important in the long term but is not the most immediate priority during the admission process. Asking the client why she is anxious (Choice C) may not be helpful at this moment as the client may not be able to articulate the specific reasons due to her heightened anxiety. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice D) should not be the initial intervention as it does not address the underlying cause of the anxiety and should be considered only if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective.

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