Nursing Elites

1. A client is being treated with a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Constipation and urinary retention.
• B. Increased appetite and weight loss.
• C. Sedation and blurred vision.
• D. Insomnia and dry mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constipation and urinary retention. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are known to have anticholinergic side effects, which include constipation and urinary retention. These side effects occur due to the inhibition of cholinergic receptors, leading to decreased gastrointestinal motility and relaxation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, weight loss, sedation, blurred vision, insomnia, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the use of TCAs. Monitoring for constipation and urinary retention is essential to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.

2. A client who is admitted with a closed head injury after a fall has a blood alcohol level (BAL) of 0.28 (28%) and is difficult to arouse. Which intervention during the first 6 hours following admission should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Place in a side-lying position with head of bed elevated.
• B. Administer disulfiram (Antabuse) immediately
• C. Give lorazepam (Ativan) PRN for signs of withdrawal.
• D. Provide thiamine and folate supplements as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maintain the patient's airway is the priority for a client who is intoxicated and obtunded.

3. A male client with schizophrenia is being discharged from the psychiatric unit after being stabilized with antipsychotic medications. What is the most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. “You should see your psychiatrist every 6 months.”
• B. “It’s important to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed.”
• C. “Try to avoid caffeine and alcohol completely.”
• D. “You should exercise daily to maintain a healthy lifestyle.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a male client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized with antipsychotic medications is to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed. Medication adherence is crucial in managing schizophrenia, preventing relapse, and maintaining stability. While seeing the psychiatrist regularly (Choice A) is important, adherence to medication is more critical for the client's immediate well-being. Avoiding caffeine and alcohol (Choice C) may be beneficial but is not as crucial as medication adherence. Daily exercise (Choice D) is important for overall health but is not the most critical instruction for managing schizophrenia.

4. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. When the RN notes a discrepancy between the client’s verbal and nonverbal communication, what action should the RN take?

• A. Pay close attention to and document the nonverbal messages.
• B. Ask the client’s husband to interpret the discrepancy.
• C. Ignore the nonverbal behavior and focus solely on the client’s verbal messages.
• D. Integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and interpret them together.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a client assessment, noting and documenting nonverbal messages is important as it captures the full context of the client’s communication. Nonverbal cues can often reveal underlying emotions or issues that may not be expressed verbally. Asking the client’s husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not be appropriate as it could potentially breach the client's privacy and trust. Ignoring nonverbal behavior (Choice C) can result in missing important cues that could impact the care provided. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is beneficial, but the initial step should be to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages to fully understand the client's communication.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

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