Nursing Elites

1. While sitting in the day room of the mental health unit, a male adolescent avoids eye contact, looks at the floor, and talks softly when interacting verbally with the RN. The two trade places, and the RN demonstrates the client's behaviors. What is the main goal of this therapeutic technique?

• A. Initiate a non-threatening conversation with the client.
• B. Dialog about the ineffectiveness of his interactions.
• C. Allow the client to identify the way he interacts.
• D. Discuss the client's feelings when he responds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main goal of the therapeutic technique described is to allow the client to identify the way he interacts. This technique helps promote self-awareness in the client by mirroring his behavior back to him, which can lead to insights about his own communication style. Option A is incorrect as the goal is not just to initiate conversation but to facilitate self-reflection. Option B is incorrect because the focus is not on discussing the ineffectiveness of the interactions but on self-awareness. Option D is incorrect as the primary aim is not to discuss the client's feelings but to help him recognize his interaction patterns.

2. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?

• A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
• B. Thiamine (Vitamin B1)
• C. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.

3. What intervention is likely to be most effective in returning a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder who suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation to a normal level of functioning?

• A. Encourage the client to exercise.
• B. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
• C. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
• D. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most effective intervention for a middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder experiencing psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and amotivation is to teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities. This intervention helps combat the symptoms by providing a routine and purpose to the client's day, addressing the issues of psychomotor retardation and amotivation. Structured activities can help establish a sense of normalcy, improve motivation, and regulate sleep patterns. Encouraging exercise (Choice A) can be beneficial but may be challenging for a client experiencing psychomotor retardation. Developing a list of pleasurable activities (Choice B) may not address the need for structure and routine in the client's daily life. Providing education on sleep enhancement methods (Choice C) is important but may not be sufficient to address the overall functional impairment in this case.

4. A client is being educated by a healthcare professional about initiating a prescribed abstinence therapy using Disulfiram (Antabuse). What information should the client acknowledge understanding?

• A. Admit to others that they are a substance abuser.
• B. Remain alcohol-free for 12 hours before taking the first dose.
• C. Attend monthly Alcoholics Anonymous meetings.
• D. Completely abstain from heroin or cocaine use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: B: Before starting Disulfiram therapy, it is crucial for clients to be alcohol-free for a minimum of 12 hours to prevent adverse reactions. A: Admitting substance abuse is important, but it is not directly linked to the initiation of Disulfiram therapy. C: Attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings is beneficial for support but not a specific requirement for starting Disulfiram. D: The focus of Disulfiram therapy is on alcohol abstinence, so abstaining from heroin or cocaine is not directly related to this medication.

5. Which actions are likely to help promote the self-esteem of a male client with major depression?

• A. Ask the client about his long-term goals.
• B. Discuss the challenges of his medical condition.
• C. Include the client in determining treatment protocol.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in recreational therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Including the client in determining the treatment protocol is the most suitable action to promote the self-esteem of a male client with major depression. This approach empowers the client, involves him in decision-making regarding his care, and fosters a sense of control and self-worth. Option A, asking about his long-term goals, may not directly address his immediate self-esteem needs related to his current condition. Option B, discussing the challenges of his medical condition, may inadvertently focus on negative aspects and potentially lower self-esteem. Option D, encouraging engagement in recreational therapy, is beneficial but may not directly address the client's sense of control and self-worth in decision-making related to his treatment.

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