Nursing Elites

1. While sitting in the day room of the mental health unit, a male adolescent avoids eye contact, looks at the floor, and talks softly when interacting verbally with the RN. The two trade places, and the RN demonstrates the client's behaviors. What is the main goal of this therapeutic technique?

• A. Initiate a non-threatening conversation with the client.
• B. Dialog about the ineffectiveness of his interactions.
• C. Allow the client to identify the way he interacts.
• D. Discuss the client's feelings when he responds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main goal of the therapeutic technique described is to allow the client to identify the way he interacts. This technique helps promote self-awareness in the client by mirroring his behavior back to him, which can lead to insights about his own communication style. Option A is incorrect as the goal is not just to initiate conversation but to facilitate self-reflection. Option B is incorrect because the focus is not on discussing the ineffectiveness of the interactions but on self-awareness. Option D is incorrect as the primary aim is not to discuss the client's feelings but to help him recognize his interaction patterns.

2. The healthcare professional is developing a discharge plan for a client recovering from alcohol withdrawal. Which instruction should be included in the client’s discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid all social situations involving alcohol.
• B. Continue taking prescribed medications.
• C. Contact a support group such as Alcoholics Anonymous.
• D. Avoid using any over-the-counter medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is essential to include instructions for the client to contact a support group like Alcoholics Anonymous in their discharge teaching. Support groups play a vital role in providing ongoing support, guidance, and encouragement during the recovery process from alcohol withdrawal, helping to prevent relapse. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding all social situations involving alcohol may not be practical or sustainable in the long term. Choice B is important but is not specific to the client's alcohol recovery needs. Choice D is not the top priority compared to the importance of connecting with a support group for ongoing assistance and accountability.

3. The nurse accepts a transfer to the mental health unit and understands that the client is distractible and is exhibiting a decreased ability to concentrate. The nurse has only 15 minutes to talk with the client. To develop a treatment plan for this client, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Motivation for treatment
• B. History of substance use
• C. Medication compliance
• D. Mental status examination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A mental status examination is the most important assessment for the nurse to obtain in this scenario. It provides a comprehensive view of the client's current cognitive functioning, including their level of alertness, orientation, memory, attention, and thought process. Understanding the client's mental status is crucial for developing an appropriate treatment plan. The other options, such as motivation for treatment, history of substance use, and medication compliance, are important aspects to consider but may not directly address the client's current cognitive state and immediate treatment needs as effectively as a mental status examination.

4. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is admitted to the mental health unit after abruptly stopping his prescription for ziprasidone (Geodon) one month ago. Which question is most important for the RN to ask the client?

• A. Have you lost interest in the activities you once enjoyed?
• B. Is your ability to think or concentrate reduced?
• C. How many consecutive hours do you sleep at night?
• D. Do you hear sounds or voices that others do not hear?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most critical question for the RN to ask the client relates to hallucinations. Hallucinations, such as hearing sounds or voices others do not hear, are a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia. This inquiry is vital for assessing the presence of psychotic symptoms and the potential relapse of the client's condition. Choices A, B, and C, although important in assessing overall mental health, do not directly address the core symptomatology of schizophrenia or the potential impact of discontinuing antipsychotic medication abruptly.

Similar Questions