the nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease which
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Controlling blood pressure is critical in managing peripheral vascular disease, as elevated pressure can exacerbate vascular damage and complications. While foot care, shoe fit, and exercise are important, lowering blood pressure is a primary goal. Proper blood pressure management helps in preventing further damage to the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral vascular disease, making it the most crucial outcome to include in the plan of care for this client.

2. A client at 12 weeks gestation is admitted to the antepartum unit with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum, characterized by severe nausea and vomiting, leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is initiating IV fluids to correct these imbalances. Providing emotional support is important for the client's well-being, but addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Monitoring daily weight and encouraging small frequent meals are beneficial interventions but are not the priority when managing hyperemesis gravidarum.

3. An adolescent client with intellectual disability refuses oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best reinforcement for the nurse to implement is preferred activities or privileges for compliance. Positive reinforcement with privileges is effective in encouraging behavior change in adolescents, including those with intellectual disabilities. Choice A (Candy for successful oral hygiene tasks) may not be suitable as it involves providing a sugary reward, which contradicts the goal of oral hygiene. Choice B (Tokens for each successful oral hygiene task) could be effective but may not be as motivating as preferred activities or privileges. Choice C (Privilege restrictions for refusing oral hygiene tasks) focuses on negative reinforcement, which is not as effective as positive reinforcement in behavior modification.

4. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

5. Which meal option should the nurse recommend for a client with renal disease who is following a low-protein diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pasta with marinara sauce. Clients with renal disease following a low-protein diet should opt for lower-protein options. Pasta with marinara sauce is a suitable choice as it is lower in protein compared to grilled chicken, tofu, or salmon. Grilled chicken, tofu, and salmon are higher in protein content and are not ideal for individuals following a low-protein diet for renal disease as they may strain the kidneys.

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