Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT).
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR).
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in clients with DVT. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is prolonged by heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) are primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.

2. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Heart failure
• D. Renal failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.

3. A client with adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the ICU with acute adrenal crisis. The client's vital signs include heart rate 138 bpm and BP 80/60. What is the nurse's first intervention?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with adrenal crisis and hypotension is to administer an IV fluid bolus. In adrenal crisis, the body is deficient in cortisol, leading to hypotension. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the blood pressure. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN antipyretic (Choice C) is not indicated as the client's vital signs do not suggest fever. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension in adrenal crisis.

4. A client with lung cancer is admitted to palliative care. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Monitor respiratory status and oxygenation.
• B. Evaluate the client's mental status and cognition.
• C. Check the client’s pain level and provide comfort.
• D. Assess the client’s nutritional status and appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring respiratory status and oxygenation is crucial in clients with lung cancer, as metastasis to the lungs or pleural effusion can compromise breathing. This assessment helps in early identification of respiratory distress and the need for interventions to maintain adequate oxygenation. Choice B is important but not the priority in this situation. Evaluating mental status and cognition should follow after ensuring the client's physiological needs are met. Choice C, checking pain level and providing comfort, is essential but secondary to assessing respiratory status. Choice D, assessing nutritional status and appetite, is also important but not the priority when the client's breathing is at risk.

5. The healthcare worker is wearing PPE while caring for a client. When exiting the room, which PPE should be removed first?

• A. Gloves
• B. Face shield
• C. Mask
• D. Gown

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gloves should be removed first as they are most likely to be contaminated. This is followed by the gown, then face shield, and mask. Correct removal sequence helps prevent contamination. Removing gloves first reduces the risk of transferring pathogens from the gloves to other PPE or surfaces. Face shield and mask should be removed last as they protect mucous membranes from exposure to contaminants. Removing PPE in the correct sequence is crucial in preventing the spread of infections.

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