HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.
2. Following a lumbar puncture, a client complains of worsening headache when sitting up. What complication is the client likely experiencing?
- A. A migraine headache
- B. An infection from the puncture site
- C. Low blood sugar
- D. Spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client is likely experiencing spinal fluid leakage (post-lumbar puncture headache), a common complication of a lumbar puncture. This leakage results in a reduction of cerebrospinal fluid volume around the brain and spinal cord, leading to a headache that worsens when in an upright position due to reduced buoyancy. A migraine headache (Choice A) is not typically associated with a lumbar puncture. Infection from the puncture site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of inflammation, such as redness, swelling, and warmth, rather than worsening headache. Low blood sugar (Choice C) is not a common complication of lumbar puncture and would not typically manifest as a worsening headache when sitting up.
3. A client has burns covering 40% of their total body surface area (TBSA). What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Monitor the client's urinary output hourly.
- B. Apply cool, moist dressings to the burned areas.
- C. Administer pain medication to reduce discomfort.
- D. Administer IV fluids to prevent hypovolemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor the client's urinary output hourly. Clients with burns covering a large percentage of their total body surface area are at high risk for hypovolemia due to fluid loss. Monitoring urinary output is crucial because it helps assess kidney function and fluid balance, providing essential information about the client's hemodynamic status. Applying cool, moist dressings (choice B) is important but not the priority over assessing fluid balance. Administering pain medication (choice C) is essential for comfort but not the priority over monitoring for potential complications like hypovolemia. Administering IV fluids (choice D) is important to prevent hypovolemia, but monitoring urinary output should be the priority to guide fluid resuscitation.
4. A client is admitted with a suspected gastrointestinal bleed. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Bright red blood in the vomit.
- B. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate.
- C. Coffee ground emesis.
- D. Dark, tarry stools.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Dark, tarry stools indicate the presence of digested blood in the gastrointestinal tract, signifying a higher gastrointestinal bleed. This finding requires immediate intervention due to the potential severity of the bleed. Bright red blood in the vomit may indicate active bleeding but is not as concerning as digested blood. Elevated blood pressure and heart rate are common responses to bleeding but do not provide direct evidence of the source or severity of the bleed. Coffee ground emesis is indicative of partially digested blood and is a concern but not as urgent as dark, tarry stools.
5. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?
- A. Mild impairment
- B. Moderate impairment
- C. Severe impairment
- D. Normal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.
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