HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.
2. The nurse is administering an intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test. Which technique should the nurse use?
- A. Use a 25-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle
- B. Use a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle
- C. Use a 22-gauge needle at a 45-degree angle
- D. Use a 20-gauge needle at a 90-degree angle
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An intradermal injection for a tuberculosis skin test should be administered using a 27-gauge needle at a 15-degree angle. This technique ensures that the medication is delivered into the dermis layer of the skin. Choice A is incorrect because a 25-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection. Choice C is incorrect as a 22-gauge needle is also too large and the angle is too steep for an intradermal injection. Choice D is incorrect as a 20-gauge needle is too large for an intradermal injection, and a 90-degree angle would not deliver the medication accurately into the dermis.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with an infected foot ulcer. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Obtain a wound culture for testing.
- B. Administer prescribed IV antibiotics.
- C. Elevate the affected foot to reduce swelling.
- D. Consult the wound care nurse for assessment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering prescribed IV antibiotics is the most crucial intervention in managing an infected foot ulcer in a client with diabetes mellitus. Antibiotics help combat the infection and prevent its spread systemically, which is vital in diabetic clients to prevent serious complications like sepsis. While obtaining a wound culture (Choice A) may provide valuable information for targeted antibiotic therapy, administering antibiotics promptly takes precedence to prevent the infection from worsening. Elevating the affected foot (Choice C) can help reduce swelling but is not as urgent as administering antibiotics. Consulting the wound care nurse (Choice D) may be beneficial for long-term wound management but does not address the immediate need to control the infection.
4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is deteriorating?
- A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
- B. Temperature of 99.5°F (37.5°C)
- C. Blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg
- D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, which is a sign of worsening septic shock. Hypotension can lead to organ failure and requires immediate intervention. Elevated heart rate (choice A), mild fever (choice B), and slightly increased respiratory rate (choice D) are common in septic shock and may not necessarily indicate a deteriorating condition as much as hypotension does.
5. A client has been receiving hydromorphone every six hours for four days. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Increase the dosage of the medication.
- B. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- C. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- D. Check the client's respiratory rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hydromorphone can cause constipation, a common side effect of opioids. Therefore, it is crucial to auscultate bowel sounds to monitor for signs of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are important but not the priority in this scenario as constipation is a common issue with opioid use. Increasing the dosage of the medication (choice A) is not appropriate without assessing the client's bowel function first.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access