Nursing Elites

1. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
• B. Respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
• D. Blood pressure of 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.

2. A 7-year-old is admitted to the hospital with persistent vomiting, and a nasogastric tube attached to low intermittent suction is applied. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours.
• B. Shift intake of 640 mL IV fluids plus 30 mL PO ice chips.
• C. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L.
• D. Serum pH of 7.45.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is significantly low and indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. The other findings are not as critical in this situation. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours may be expected in a patient with persistent vomiting. The shift intake of IV fluids and ice chips indicates fluid replacement, which is important but not as urgent as correcting electrolyte imbalances. A serum pH of 7.45 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

3. A 16-year-old male client who has been treated in the past for a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital. Immediately after admission, he begins to have a grand mal seizure. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain assistance in holding him to prevent injury.
• B. Observe him carefully.
• C. Call a CODE.
• D. Place a padded tongue blade between the teeth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Observing the client carefully allows the nurse to monitor the seizure activity, the client's breathing, and any signs of distress without interfering with the seizure process. Restraining the client or placing objects in the mouth can lead to injury and should be avoided. Calling a CODE is not appropriate for a seizure as it is a normal response to the client's condition.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer an immunization to a 5-year-old child. The parent asks if the vaccine can be given in a different way because the child is afraid of needles. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. We can apply a numbing cream before the injection
• B. There is no other way to administer this vaccine
• C. We can give the vaccine as a nasal spray
• D. We can skip the vaccine if the child is too afraid

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering the vaccine as a nasal spray provides an alternative method of delivery that avoids the use of needles, addressing the child's fear while ensuring immunization. Nasal sprays are effective for certain vaccines and can be a suitable option in this scenario. Choice A is not the best response as it only addresses pain management but does not eliminate the use of needles. Choice B is incorrect as there are alternative delivery methods like nasal sprays. Choice D is incorrect as skipping the vaccine would leave the child unprotected and is not a recommended course of action.

5. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes is admitted to the hospital with a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL. The client is lethargic and has fruity-smelling breath. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed
• B. Start an IV infusion of normal saline
• C. Check the client’s urine for ketones
• D. Monitor the client’s vital signs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority action for the nurse is to start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client's presentation with lethargy, fruity-smelling breath, and high blood glucose level indicates diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). IV fluids are essential to correct dehydration and help stabilize the client's condition. Checking for ketones in the urine is important, but fluid replacement takes precedence to address the immediate risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering insulin is also a crucial intervention for DKA, but fluid resuscitation should first be initiated.

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