Nursing Elites

1. A 7-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with nephrotic syndrome. The nurse notes that the child has gained 3 pounds in the past 24 hours. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed
• B. Restrict the child’s fluid intake
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Measure the child’s abdominal girth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with nephrotic syndrome experiencing sudden weight gain, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider. This weight gain could indicate worsening edema or fluid retention, necessitating immediate medical evaluation and intervention. The healthcare provider can conduct a comprehensive assessment, order necessary tests, and adjust the treatment plan accordingly. Administering a diuretic, restricting fluid intake, or measuring abdominal girth should not be initiated without healthcare provider consultation to ensure appropriate management of the child's condition.

2. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?

• A. Administer a corticosteroid
• B. Obtain a throat culture
• C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
• D. Place the child in an upright position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.

3. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

4. In a 7-year-old child with a history of asthma experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation and displaying wheezing and the use of accessory muscles to breathe, what is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
• B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
• C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator. During an acute asthma exacerbation in a child with wheezing and increased work of breathing, the priority intervention is to provide immediate bronchodilation to dilate the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. This intervention aims to manage the acute asthma attack effectively and prevent further respiratory distress. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or notifying the healthcare provider are important actions, but administering a bronchodilator takes precedence in addressing the acute respiratory compromise.

5. A 9-week-old infant is scheduled for cleft lip repair. Which information is most important for the nurse to convey to the surgeon before transporting the infant to the surgical suite?

• A. Red blood cell count of 2.3 million/mm³
• B. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
• C. Weight gain of 2 pounds since birth
• D. Urine specific gravity is 1.011

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a low red blood cell count may indicate anemia, which could pose risks during surgery. Anemia can affect oxygen delivery to tissues, impacting wound healing and overall surgical outcomes. The other options, such as white blood cell count, weight gain, and urine specific gravity, are less critical for immediate surgical considerations. White blood cell count is more related to infection risk postoperatively rather than immediate surgical risk. Weight gain reflects good overall growth but does not impact the immediate surgical situation. Urine specific gravity is more indicative of hydration status rather than immediate surgical risk.

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