Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease. Which client should the nurse assess first upon initial rounding?

• A. Woman with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg
• B. Client with Kussmaul respirations
• C. Man with skin itching from head to toe
• D. Client with halitosis and stomatitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Kussmaul respirations indicate a worsening of chronic kidney disease (CKD). The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs, a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis common in CKD. Hypertension, as in choice A, is a common finding in CKD due to volume overload and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Skin itching, as in choice C, is related to calcium-phosphate imbalances seen in CKD. Halitosis and stomatitis, as in choice D, are common in CKD due to uremia, leading to the formation of ammonia. However, Kussmaul respirations indicate a more urgent need for assessment as they suggest impending respiratory distress and metabolic derangement, requiring immediate attention.

2. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being taught about the necessary sodium restriction in the diet to prevent edema and hypertension. Which statement by the client indicates more teaching is needed?

• A. I am thrilled that I can continue to eat fast food.
• B. I will cut out bacon with my eggs every morning.
• C. My cooking style will change by not adding salt.
• D. I will probably lose weight by cutting out potato chips.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A, 'I am thrilled that I can continue to eat fast food,' indicates a lack of understanding as fast food is typically high in sodium, which is detrimental for individuals with CKD. The client should be advised to avoid fast food due to its high sodium content. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate a good understanding of the need for sodium restriction in the diet to prevent complications associated with CKD. Cutting out bacon, avoiding salt in cooking, and eliminating high-sodium snacks like potato chips are all positive steps towards managing CKD.

3. A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, 'Why is so much of my hair falling out each day?' Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?

• A. 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.'
• B. 'Alopecia is a common side effect you will experience during long-term steroid therapy.'
• C. 'Your hair will grow back completely after your course of chemotherapy is completed.'
• D. 'The chemotherapy causes permanent alterations in your hair follicles that lead to hair loss.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.' Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include not only cancer cells but also healthy cells like those in hair follicles. This leads to alopecia (hair loss) as a common side effect. Choice B is incorrect as alopecia is primarily associated with chemotherapy and not long-term steroid therapy. Choice C is incorrect because while hair may grow back after chemotherapy, it may not always be to the same extent or thickness. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy-induced hair loss is often temporary and reversible, not permanent alterations in hair follicles.

4. The client admitted with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is:

• A. Decreased blood flow.
• B. Increased blood flow.
• C. Slow blood flow.
• D. Thrombus formation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased blood flow.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), there is a narrowing or blockage of blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow to the extremities. This decreased blood flow results in inadequate oxygen supply to the muscles, causing pain, especially during physical activity when oxygen demand increases. Choice B, 'Increased blood flow,' is incorrect because PVD is characterized by impaired blood circulation rather than increased flow. Choice C, 'Slow blood flow,' is not precise as PVD involves a more significant reduction in blood flow. Choice D, 'Thrombus formation,' is related to the formation of blood clots within vessels, which can be a complication of PVD but is not its main characteristic.

5. The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may take antacids 2 hours before taking this drug.
• B. I should take acetaminophen for fever or mild pain.
• C. I should expect diarrhea to be a common, mild side effect.
• D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this drug.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Azithromycin peak levels may be reduced by antacids when taken at the same time, so patients should be cautioned to take antacids 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the drug. Choice B is incorrect because high-dose azithromycin carries a risk for hepatotoxicity when taken with other potentially hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea may indicate pseudomembranous colitis and should be reported, not expected as a common mild side effect. Choice D is incorrect; there is no restriction for dairy products while taking azithromycin.

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