HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage increased fluid intake
- B. Administer vasopressin
- C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
- D. Restrict oral fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is to restrict oral fluids. SIADH leads to excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the body to retain water and diluting the sodium levels in the blood (hyponatremia). Restricting oral fluids helps prevent further water retention and worsening hyponatremia. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice A) would exacerbate the problem by further diluting sodium levels. Administering vasopressin (choice B) is not indicated in SIADH, as the condition is characterized by excess ADH secretion. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice C) is not the priority in SIADH since the issue is water retention rather than dehydration.
2. During a home visit, an elderly female client who had a brain attack three months ago and can now ambulate with a quad cane is assessed by the nurse. Which assessment finding has the greatest implications for this client's care?
- A. The husband, who is the caregiver, begins to weep when the nurse asks how he is doing.
- B. The client tells the nurse that she does not have much of an appetite today.
- C. The nurse notes that there are numerous scatter rugs throughout the house.
- D. The client's pulse rate is 10 beats higher than it was at the last visit one week ago.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The presence of numerous scatter rugs throughout the house poses a significant safety hazard to the client who is ambulating with a quad cane. These rugs increase the risk of tripping and falling, making it the most critical finding that needs immediate attention to prevent potential injuries and ensure the client's safety during ambulation.
3. During the admission procedure of a 6-year-old, the child states, 'I’m going to have an operation.' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this child?
- A. Are you scared?
- B. We’re going to do everything we can to take very good care of you.
- C. Tell me what an operation is.
- D. I’m glad your mother told you why you were coming to the hospital.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate response for the nurse is to provide reassurance and express care to alleviate the child's anxiety about the upcoming operation. By reassuring the child that everything will be done to take very good care of them, the nurse helps build trust and comfort, creating a positive and supportive environment for the child.
4. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
- B. I will take the medication at the same time each day.
- C. I will use an electric razor to shave.
- D. I will take aspirin if I have a headache.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients taking warfarin (Coumadin) should avoid aspirin unless prescribed by their healthcare provider, as it can increase the risk of bleeding. The other statements are correct and do not indicate a need for further teaching. Taking aspirin along with warfarin can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding complications.
5. In caring for a client with a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate through the right cephalic vein, the nurse assesses that the client is lethargic with a blood pressure of 90/60, pulse rate of 118 beats per minute, and respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. What assessment should the nurse perform next?
- A. Note the appearance and patency of the client's peripheral IV site.
- B. Palpate the volume of the client's right radial pulse.
- C. Auscultate the client's breath sounds bilaterally.
- D. Observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is dealing with a lethargic client with concerning vital signs after a PCA infusion of morphine sulfate. The next assessment the nurse should perform is to observe the amount and dose of morphine in the PCA pump syringe. This is crucial to evaluate for possible overdose, as the client's symptoms could be indicative of opioid toxicity. Checking the morphine amount and dose will help the nurse adjust the treatment accordingly. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the potential cause of the client's lethargy and abnormal vital signs related to the morphine infusion.