Nursing Elites

1. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

• A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
• B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
• C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
• D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.

2. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

3. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
• D. Serum osmolarity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Serum osmolarity is the most important laboratory test for confirming hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis. Elevated serum osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration in the blood, which is a hallmark of HHNS. Serum potassium level (Choice A) is important in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis rather than HHNS. Serum sodium level (Choice B) may be affected in HHNS but is not the primary test for confirming the disorder. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values (Choice C) are more useful in assessing acid-base status, which is not the primary concern in HHNS.

4. The client with Addison's disease is receiving education on managing the condition. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Increase your sodium intake during periods of stress.
• B. Avoid all types of exercise.
• C. Decrease your fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• D. Stop corticosteroid therapy once symptoms improve.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include for a client with Addison's disease is to increase sodium intake during periods of stress. In Addison's disease, there is a deficiency of aldosterone leading to sodium loss. Increasing sodium intake helps to compensate for this loss and prevent complications. Choice B is incorrect as exercise is beneficial for overall health but should be done in moderation. Choice C is incorrect as fluid intake should be adequate to prevent dehydration since clients with Addison's disease are prone to electrolyte imbalances. Choice D is incorrect as corticosteroid therapy is essential for managing Addison's disease and should not be discontinued abruptly without medical guidance.

5. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

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