Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

2. Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.
• B. Glipizide may cause a low serum sodium level, so make sure you have your sodium level checked monthly.
• C. You won't need to check your blood glucose level after you start taking glipizide.
• D. Take glipizide after a meal to prevent heartburn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glipizide should be taken 30 minutes before meals to maximize its glucose-lowering effect.

3. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse manager in managing conflict on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for mediating conflicts between staff members and ensuring that they are resolved in a fair and equitable manner.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for facilitating communication between staff members and ensuring that conflicts are addressed in a timely manner.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing training and support to staff members to help them develop the skills needed to manage conflict effectively.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager's role in managing conflict involves identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner. This includes addressing conflicts at their root cause and guiding staff towards effective resolution. Choice B is incorrect as the nurse manager typically does not act as a mediator but rather empowers staff to resolve conflicts themselves. Choice C is incorrect as while facilitating communication is important, it is not the sole responsibility of the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as providing training and support for conflict management is part of the role, but the primary responsibility lies in addressing the sources of conflict directly.

4. For a male client with hyperglycemia, which assessment finding best supports a nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume?

• A. Cool, clammy skin
• B. Distended neck veins
• C. Increased urine osmolarity
• D. Decreased serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased urine osmolarity is the best assessment finding supporting a nursing diagnosis of Deficient fluid volume in a male client with hyperglycemia. In hyperglycemia, there is increased glucose in the blood, which leads to osmotic diuresis. This results in the excretion of large amounts of urine that is concentrated (high osmolarity), leading to dehydration and fluid volume deficit. Cool, clammy skin (Choice A) is more indicative of poor perfusion, distended neck veins (Choice B) are associated with fluid volume excess, and decreased serum sodium level (Choice D) could be a result of dilutional hyponatremia due to fluid overload rather than deficient fluid volume.

5. After undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy, a female client develops hypothyroidism. Dr. Smith prescribes levothyroxine (Levothroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. For which condition is levothyroxine the preferred agent?

• A. Primary hypothyroidism
• B. Graves' disease
• C. Thyrotoxicosis
• D. Euthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine is the preferred agent for primary hypothyroidism because it provides the necessary replacement of thyroid hormone in patients with deficient thyroid function. Choice B, Graves' disease, is an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism and is typically treated with antithyroid medications or radioactive iodine. Choice C, thyrotoxicosis, refers to the clinical state resulting from excessive thyroid hormone action and is not typically treated with levothyroxine. Choice D, euthyroidism, describes a normal thyroid function and would not require treatment with levothyroxine.

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