HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5
1. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?
- A. Oral anticoagulants
- B. Anabolic steroids
- C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
- D. Thiazide diuretics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.
2. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:
- A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
- B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
- C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
- D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider implement?
- A. Administer beta-blockers to control blood pressure
- B. Encourage a high-sodium diet
- C. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia
- D. Restrict fluid intake to prevent edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pheochromocytoma is to administer beta-blockers to control blood pressure. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumor that can cause severe hypertension. Beta-blockers are used to block the effects of catecholamines and help control blood pressure in these clients. Encouraging a high-sodium diet (Choice B) would not be appropriate as it can worsen hypertension. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not directly related to managing pheochromocytoma. Restricting fluid intake (Choice D) may lead to dehydration and is not a recommended intervention for this condition.
4. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager's actions?
- A. Resource allocation
- B. Monitoring
- C. Job analysis and redesign
- D. Planning for the future
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Planning for the future.' In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in strategic planning by considering policy changes and community dynamics to forecast potential impacts on the unit's functioning. This decisional activity involves anticipating future changes, challenges, and opportunities, and preparing the unit to adapt accordingly. Choice A, 'Resource allocation,' involves distributing resources effectively to support daily operations, which is not the primary focus of the nurse manager's actions described. Choice B, 'Monitoring,' typically involves overseeing current activities and performance to ensure adherence to standards and goals, rather than proactively planning for future changes as the nurse manager is doing. Choice C, 'Job analysis and redesign,' pertains to evaluating and modifying job roles and responsibilities within the unit, which is not directly related to the strategic forecasting and planning involved in anticipating organizational and community impacts.
5. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?
- A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
- B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
- C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access