Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

2. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

• A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
• D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. In the treatment of hypoglycemia, it is important to administer a specific amount of simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels effectively without causing hyperglycemia. 10 to 15 g of simple carbohydrates, such as glucose tablets, fruit juice, or regular soft drinks, is recommended to rapidly increase blood sugar levels in clients experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either provide too little or too much glucose, which may not effectively treat the hypoglycemic episode or may lead to rebound hyperglycemia.

3. The healthcare professional is educating a client with Cushing's syndrome about dietary management. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Increase sodium intake
• B. Limit protein intake
• C. Limit calcium intake
• D. Increase potassium intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with Cushing's syndrome, they are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to increased excretion of potassium. Therefore, it is essential to advise them to increase their potassium intake. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Increasing sodium intake can worsen fluid retention and hypertension common in Cushing's syndrome. B) Limiting protein intake is not necessary unless there are specific kidney issues that require protein restriction. C) Limiting calcium intake is not typically recommended unless there are underlying conditions such as hypercalcemia.

4. A nurse manager is focusing on improving communication on the unit. Which of the following best describes the importance of this focus?

• A. The nurse manager's focus on communication is essential to ensure that all staff members are informed, understand their roles, and can work together effectively to provide quality care.
• B. The nurse manager's focus on communication is important to ensure that information is shared effectively and that there is a clear understanding of roles and responsibilities on the unit.
• C. The nurse manager's focus on communication is crucial to ensuring that all staff members are working together effectively and that there is a shared understanding of the unit's goals and priorities.
• D. The nurse manager's focus on communication is vital to creating an open and transparent environment where staff members feel comfortable sharing information and concerns.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective communication is essential for ensuring that all staff members are informed, understand their roles, and can collaborate effectively to provide quality care. Choice B focuses more on information sharing and understanding roles but lacks emphasis on effective teamwork and quality care provision. Choice C mentions staff working together effectively and understanding unit goals, but it does not explicitly highlight the importance of staff being informed and understanding their roles. Choice D emphasizes creating an open environment for sharing information and concerns, which is important but does not encompass the broader aspects of effective communication as described in choice A.

5. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

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