the nurse is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma which of the following interventions should the nurse implement
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Leadership HESI Quizlet

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare provider implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with pheochromocytoma is to administer beta-blockers to control blood pressure. Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumor that can cause severe hypertension. Beta-blockers are used to block the effects of catecholamines and help control blood pressure in these clients. Encouraging a high-sodium diet (Choice B) would not be appropriate as it can worsen hypertension. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not directly related to managing pheochromocytoma. Restricting fluid intake (Choice D) may lead to dehydration and is not a recommended intervention for this condition.

2. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

3. A client with type 1 DM is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. In hypoglycemia, the body releases adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Choice B, polyuria, refers to excessive urination and is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia. Choice C, flushed skin, is not a common symptom of hypoglycemia; instead, pale skin and sweating are more characteristic. Choice D, dry mouth, is not directly associated with hypoglycemia; rather, it can be a symptom of hyperglycemia or dehydration.

4. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are specifically designed for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment due to the absence of endogenous insulin production. Therefore, these medications are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the male client in this scenario. Choice A is incorrect as oral antidiabetic agents are not about preference but rather about treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as being pregnant does not impact the effectiveness of oral antidiabetic agents; they are primarily indicated for type 2 diabetes.

5. What is the approximate duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: '16-20 hours.' Intermediate-acting insulins like NPH typically have a duration of action of approximately 16-20 hours. This prolonged action makes them effective in managing blood glucose levels over an extended period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical duration of action for intermediate-acting insulins. Choice A (6-8 hours) is too short, choice B (10-14 hours) is also shorter than the typical duration, and choice D (24-28 hours) is too long for intermediate-acting insulins like NPH.

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