Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a female client with a history of hypoglycemia, Nurse Ruby should avoid administering a drug that may potentiate hypoglycemia. Which drug fits this description?

• A. Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)
• B. Mexiletine (Mexitil)
• C. Prednisone (Orasone)
• D. Lithium carbonate (Lithobid)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin). Sulfisoxazole is known to potentiate hypoglycemia, making it unsafe for clients with a history of hypoglycemia. Choice B, Mexiletine, is a medication used to treat certain heart rhythm problems and is not associated with hypoglycemia. Choice C, Prednisone, is a corticosteroid and does not potentiate hypoglycemia. Choice D, Lithium carbonate, is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder and does not typically potentiate hypoglycemia. Therefore, the drug that Nurse Ruby should avoid in this case is Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin) to prevent worsening the client's hypoglycemic condition.

2. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

3. Clinical nursing assessment for a patient with microangiopathy who has manifested impaired peripheral arterial circulation includes all of the following except:

• A. Integumentary inspection for the presence of brown spots on the lower extremities.
• B. Observation for paleness of the lower extremities.
• C. Observation for blanching of the feet after the legs are elevated for 60 seconds.
• D. Palpation for increased pulse volume in the arteries of the lower extremities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with impaired peripheral arterial circulation, clinical nursing assessment should include integumentary inspection for the presence of brown spots, observation for paleness of the lower extremities, and observation for blanching of the feet after the legs are elevated for 60 seconds. Palpation for increased pulse volume in the arteries of the lower extremities is not consistent with impaired circulation, as pulses are typically diminished in this condition. Therefore, palpation for increased pulse volume is not relevant to the assessment of impaired peripheral arterial circulation.

4. Which of the following is a priority nursing diagnosis for a client with Addison's disease?

• A. Fluid volume deficit
• B. Risk for infection
• C. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
• D. Disturbed body image

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with Addison's disease is 'Fluid volume deficit.' Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, resulting in decreased aldosterone production. Aldosterone plays a key role in sodium and water retention in the body. With its deficiency, there is an increased risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, leading to fluid volume deficit. While infection risk, nutrition issues, and body image disturbances are also important considerations for holistic care, addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence due to the immediate physiological impact on the client's health and well-being.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

Similar Questions