Nursing Elites

1. Nurse managers need several qualities to be effective. A nurse manager is working hard to fully understand how patient outcomes are measured on the unit and how budget changes could impact patient outcomes. Which of the following qualities does this best describe?

• A. Leadership
• B. Business sense
• C. Clinical expertise
• D. Financial management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Business sense.' Nurse managers need to understand how financial decisions impact patient outcomes, which requires a strong understanding of business principles. Leadership (choice A) is important but doesn't specifically address understanding financial and outcome-based impacts. Clinical expertise (choice C) is essential for patient care but doesn't directly relate to understanding budget changes and their impact. Financial management (choice D) is more about managing finances directly rather than understanding the broader implications of budget changes on patient outcomes.

2. A male client with primary diabetes insipidus is ready for discharge on desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction should nurse Lina provide?

• A. Administer desmopressin while the suspension is cold.
• B. Your condition isn't chronic, so you won't need to wear a medical identification bracelet.
• C. You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.
• D. You won't need to monitor your fluid intake and output after you start taking desmopressin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is choice C: 'You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.' Nasal congestion or blockage can interfere with the absorption of nasally administered desmopressin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is unnecessary as the temperature of the suspension does not impact desmopressin administration. Choice B is incorrect as wearing a medical identification bracelet is essential for individuals with diabetes insipidus to alert healthcare providers in case of emergencies. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring fluid intake and output is crucial when taking desmopressin to ensure proper hydration and medication effectiveness.

3. For the first 72 hours after thyroidectomy surgery, nurse Jamie would assess the female client for Chvostek's sign and Trousseau's sign because they indicate which of the following?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs are clinical manifestations that suggest hypocalcemia, a common complication following thyroidectomy. Chvostek's sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle contraction, while Trousseau's sign is provoked by inflating a blood pressure cuff, leading to carpal spasm. Both signs are indicative of low calcium levels in the blood. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correlate with the signs specifically associated with hypocalcemia.

4. A client with DM visits the health care clinic. The client's diabetes has been well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia by increasing glucose production in the liver. Atenolol (Choice A) is a beta-blocker that typically does not affect blood glucose levels significantly. Phenelzine (Choice C) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used for depression and does not directly impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Choice D) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not contribute to hyperglycemia.

5. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

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