Nursing Elites

1. Nurse managers need several qualities to be effective. A nurse manager is working hard to fully understand how patient outcomes are measured on the unit and how budget changes could impact patient outcomes. Which of the following qualities does this best describe?

• A. Leadership
• B. Business sense
• C. Clinical expertise
• D. Financial management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Business sense.' Nurse managers need to understand how financial decisions impact patient outcomes, which requires a strong understanding of business principles. Leadership (choice A) is important but doesn't specifically address understanding financial and outcome-based impacts. Clinical expertise (choice C) is essential for patient care but doesn't directly relate to understanding budget changes and their impact. Financial management (choice D) is more about managing finances directly rather than understanding the broader implications of budget changes on patient outcomes.

2. A nurse manager works hard to keep employee morale high with the thought that this will lead to effective employees doing the best work they can. Which of the following theories does this best describe?

• A. Theory X
• B. Theory Y
• C. Servant leadership
• D. Scientific management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theory Y, as proposed by Douglas McGregor, emphasizes that employees are intrinsically motivated and seek responsibility. It suggests that high morale leads to high productivity, aligning with the nurse manager's actions. Theory X, on the other hand, assumes employees are inherently lazy and need to be closely monitored and controlled. Servant leadership focuses on serving others first and prioritizing their needs, which is not directly related to the scenario described. Scientific management, developed by Frederick Taylor, emphasizes efficiency and standardization through systematic study and organizational control, which is not the primary focus of the nurse manager's approach to boosting employee morale.

3. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

• A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
• B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
• C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
• D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The healthcare professional reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:

• A. Has renal failure.
• B. Requires nasogastric suction.
• C. Has a history of Addison's disease.
• D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric suction can lead to significant potassium loss due to the continuous drainage of gastric contents, increasing the risk of a potassium deficit. Choices A, C, and D do not directly result in the significant loss of potassium. Renal failure may lead to potassium retention rather than a deficit. Addison's disease is associated with adrenal insufficiency, not potassium depletion. Potassium-sparing diuretics, as the name suggests, typically help retain potassium rather than cause a deficit.

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