Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
• D. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client receiving erythropoietin therapy as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. High potassium levels can lead to severe cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other laboratory values, though abnormal, do not present immediate life-threatening risks as hyperkalemia does.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to gentamicin therapy. The client's serum blood potassium is elevated. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Anuria for the last 12 hours.
• B. Tachycardia and hypotension.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Anuria for the last 12 hours. Anuria, the absence of urine output, indicates complete kidney failure and is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. In acute kidney injury (AKI), the kidneys are unable to filter waste from the blood effectively, leading to a buildup of toxins and electrolyte imbalances like elevated blood potassium levels. Tachycardia and hypotension (choice B) can be seen in AKI but do not reflect the urgency of addressing anuria. Decreased urine output (choice C) is concerning but not as critical as the absence of urine production. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels (choice D) are indicative of kidney dysfunction but do not demand immediate action as anuria does.

3. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later, the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40 mm Hg. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention in this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. The client's drop in blood pressure to 60/40 mm Hg after nitroglycerin administration indicates hypotension, which may suggest a right ventricular infarction. Normal saline bolus helps to increase intravascular volume, improve cardiac output, and support blood pressure. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin would further decrease blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated as the client's heart is still beating, and there is no indication for CPR. Giving an antiemetic medication is not the priority in this situation where hypotension is the main concern.

4. In caring for a client who is receiving linezolid IV for nosocomial pneumonia, which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Watery diarrhea
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Watery diarrhea. This finding is the most important to report as it may indicate Clostridioides difficile infection, a severe side effect of antibiotic therapy. Clostridioides difficile infection can lead to serious complications and requires immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are common side effects of linezolid but are not as critical as watery diarrhea in this context.

5. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The nurse notices the client has more energy and is giving her belongings away. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Support the client by praising her progress.
• B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
• C. Reassure the client about the effectiveness of antidepressant drugs.
• D. Advise the client to keep her belongings for discharge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself because increased energy and giving away belongings can be signs of suicidal ideation. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of self-harm. Choice C is incorrect because reassurance about medication effectiveness may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the client's current behavior without addressing the underlying concern of potential self-harm.

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