the nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease ckd who is receiving erythropoietin therapy which laboratory value requires immediate int
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam

1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client receiving erythropoietin therapy as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. High potassium levels can lead to severe cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other laboratory values, though abnormal, do not present immediate life-threatening risks as hyperkalemia does.

2. A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is placed on a protein-restricted diet. Which nutritional goal supports this dietary change?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN). A protein-restricted diet is essential for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea nitrogen, as the kidneys cannot effectively excrete it. This helps in managing the accumulation of waste products in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not directly related to a protein-restricted diet but focuses on managing potassium levels. Choice C is not a direct nutritional goal of a protein-restricted diet but aims at supporting kidney function. Choice D is not a target of a protein-restricted diet but relates more to managing protein loss in the urine.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is most concerning in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is a sign of increased central venous pressure but is not as concerning as pulmonary congestion. Crackles in the lungs (Choice B) are common in heart failure due to fluid accumulation but are not as immediately concerning as severe shortness of breath. Peripheral edema (Choice D) is a manifestation of fluid retention in the body but is less indicative of acute pulmonary distress compared to shortness of breath.

4. A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed due to early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A warm shower can help alleviate stiffness, allowing the client to be more comfortable and mobile before the procedure. This intervention promotes increased comfort and mobility, which may help the client proceed with the procedure later in the day. Administering anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) may be helpful but may take time to be effective, while range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) may be challenging for the client due to stiffness. Rescheduling the procedure (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to alleviate stiffness.

5. A client's subjective data includes dysuria, urgency, and urinary frequency. What action should the nurse implement next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to collect a clean-catch specimen. This is essential to diagnose the cause of the client's symptoms accurately before initiating any treatment. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) without confirming the diagnosis through a specimen collection can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Performing a bladder scan (Choice C) may not provide the necessary information to identify the specific cause of the symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is a general recommendation and may not address the underlying issue causing the symptoms.

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