HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a complex handwashing ritual she performs daily that takes two hours or longer to complete. She worries about staying clean and refuses to sit on any of the chairs in the day area. This client's handwashing is an example of which clinical behavior?
- A. Addiction
- B. Phobia
- C. Compulsion
- D. Obsession
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client’s handwashing ritual is a compulsion, a repetitive behavior driven by the need to reduce anxiety associated with an obsession. In this case, the client's need to wash her hands excessively stems from an obsession with cleanliness, leading to the compulsive behavior of extensive handwashing. 'Addiction' (Choice A) involves a dependence on a substance or behavior, not related to this scenario. 'Phobia' (Choice B) is an intense fear of a specific object or situation, not applicable here. 'Obsession' (Choice D) refers to persistent and intrusive thoughts, while the handwashing behavior in this case is the compulsive action taken to alleviate the anxiety related to the obsession.
2. In a client with cirrhosis admitted with ascites and jaundice, which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Confusion and altered mental status
- C. Increased abdominal girth
- D. Yellowing of the skin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status in a client with cirrhosis and associated ascites and jaundice are indicative of hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. This condition can progress rapidly and lead to coma if not addressed promptly. Peripheral edema (choice A) and increased abdominal girth (choice C) are common manifestations of fluid retention in cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Yellowing of the skin (choice D) is a classic sign of jaundice, which is already known in this client and may not necessitate immediate intervention unless associated with other concerning symptoms.
3. A client is admitted for cellulitis surrounding an insect bite on the lower right arm, and intravenous (IV) antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which action should the nurse implement before performing venipuncture?
- A. Lower the right arm below the level of the heart.
- B. Elevate the right arm on a pillow.
- C. Apply a tourniquet above the insertion site.
- D. Apply a warm compress to the insertion site.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before performing venipuncture for IV therapy, the nurse should lower the right arm below the level of the heart. Lowering the arm helps dilate the veins, making it easier to locate and access a suitable vein for the procedure. Elevating the arm on a pillow, applying a tourniquet above the insertion site, or applying a warm compress to the insertion site are not appropriate actions before venipuncture as they can affect the venous blood flow and make the procedure more challenging.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
- B. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
- C. Potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dl
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, and requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it crucial to notify the healthcare provider promptly. Choices A, B, and D do not indicate immediate life-threatening conditions. Elevated serum creatinine levels are expected in CKD, a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dl is within a reasonable range, and a blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl is not acutely concerning in this context.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Serum sodium level
- D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dl
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.
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