HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet
1. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit because of a complex handwashing ritual she performs daily that takes two hours or longer to complete. She worries about staying clean and refuses to sit on any of the chairs in the day area. This client's handwashing is an example of which clinical behavior?
- A. Addiction
- B. Phobia
- C. Compulsion
- D. Obsession
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client’s handwashing ritual is a compulsion, a repetitive behavior driven by the need to reduce anxiety associated with an obsession. In this case, the client's need to wash her hands excessively stems from an obsession with cleanliness, leading to the compulsive behavior of extensive handwashing. 'Addiction' (Choice A) involves a dependence on a substance or behavior, not related to this scenario. 'Phobia' (Choice B) is an intense fear of a specific object or situation, not applicable here. 'Obsession' (Choice D) refers to persistent and intrusive thoughts, while the handwashing behavior in this case is the compulsive action taken to alleviate the anxiety related to the obsession.
2. The healthcare provider prescribes ceftazidime (Fortaz) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer for each dose?
- A. 0.35 ml
- B. 0.40 ml
- C. 0.50 ml
- D. 0.45 ml
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the volume to be administered for 35 mg of ceftazidime, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration: 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml. Rounding off, the nurse should administer 0.4 ml for each dose. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't consider rounding off. Choice C is incorrect because it's not the correct calculation. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't reflect the accurate volume needed.
3. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?
- A. Avoid exposure to respiratory infections.
- B. Use relaxation exercises when anxious.
- C. Continue physical therapy at home.
- D. Plan short, frequent rest periods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome is to avoid exposure to respiratory infections. Guillain-Barre syndrome can affect the respiratory system, making infections particularly dangerous. While relaxation exercises, physical therapy, and rest periods are beneficial for overall well-being and recovery, preventing respiratory infections takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening complications associated with respiratory compromise in Guillain-Barre syndrome.
4. Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client with myasthenia gravis?
- A. Encourage the client to rest frequently.
- B. Administer medication 30 minutes before meals.
- C. Maintain a patent airway.
- D. Monitor for signs of respiratory infection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining a patent airway is crucial for clients with myasthenia gravis because muscle weakness can affect the muscles responsible for breathing, potentially leading to respiratory compromise. Encouraging rest, administering medication, and monitoring for respiratory infections are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over ensuring a patent airway for adequate oxygenation.
5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use of accessory muscles.' In a client with a history of COPD, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure, necessitating immediate intervention. This finding is concerning as it suggests the client is struggling to breathe adequately. Oxygen saturation of 90% (choice A) is low but may be expected in COPD patients; it requires monitoring and intervention but is not as immediately concerning as the use of accessory muscles. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute (choice B) is within a normal range and, although slightly elevated, may be a typical response to pneumonia. Inspiratory crackles (choice D) can be a common finding in pneumonia and are not as indicative of impending respiratory failure as the use of accessory muscles.
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