HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A newly graduated female staff nurse requests reassignment to another client because a male client is asking her for a date and making suggestive comments. Which response is best for the nurse manager to provide?
- A. I have to call the supervisor to get someone else to transfer to this unit to care for him.
- B. I know you are a good nurse and can handle this client in a professional manner.
- C. I'll talk to the client about his behavior and insist that he stop it immediately.
- D. I'll change your assignment, but let's talk about how a nurse should respond to this kind of client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best response for the nurse manager to provide in this situation is option D, which involves changing the assignment to address the nurse's immediate concern. It also offers an opportunity to have a conversation with the nurse about how to professionally handle such situations in the future. Option A is not the best response as it does not address the underlying issue and simply shifts the problem to another staff member. Option B, while supportive, does not actively address the client's inappropriate behavior. Option C is not ideal as the nurse manager should handle discussions about inappropriate behavior with clients themselves rather than delegating it to the staff nurse.
2. An adolescent's mother calls the clinic because the teen is having recurrent vomiting and has been combative in the last 2 days. The mother states that the teen takes vitamins, calcium, and magnesium supplements along with aspirin. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Advise the mother to withhold all medications by mouth.
- B. Instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room.
- C. Recommend that the teen withhold food and fluids for 2 hours.
- D. Suggest that the adolescent breathe slowly and deeply.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the highest priority nursing intervention is to instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room. The symptoms of recurrent vomiting, combative behavior, and the medications (vitamins, calcium, magnesium supplements, and aspirin) taken by the teen suggest a possible overdose or serious adverse reaction. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is crucial to assess and manage any potential toxicity or adverse effects. Advising to withhold all medications by mouth (Choice A) may delay necessary treatment. Recommending withholding food and fluids for 2 hours (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Suggesting slow and deep breathing (Choice D) is not appropriate in this urgent situation requiring immediate medical attention.
3. The charge nurse of the critical care unit informed at the beginning of the shift that a less than optimal number of registered nurses would be working that shift. In planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse?
- A. A 34-year-old admitted today after an emergency appendectomy who has a peripheral intravenous catheter and a Foley catheter.
- B. A 48-year-old marathon runner with a central venous catheter experiencing nausea and vomiting due to electrolyte disturbance following a race.
- C. A 63-year-old chain smoker with chronic bronchitis receiving oxygen via nasal cannula and a saline-locked peripheral intravenous catheter.
- D. An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur with a Foley catheter and soft wrist restraints applied.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The 82-year-old client with Alzheimer's disease and a newly fractured femur should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse because they are at the highest risk for injury and complications. The client's age, diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease, and the presence of a newly fractured femur along with the Foley catheter and wrist restraints indicate a need for close monitoring and care. Choice A is less critical as the client is stable post-appendectomy. Choice B, though experiencing symptoms, is not at the same level of risk as the client in Choice D. Choice C, while requiring oxygen support, does not have the same level of acuity and complexity as the client in Choice D.
4. The nurse weighs a 6-month-old infant during a well-baby check-up and determines that the baby's weight has tripled compared to the birth weight of 7 pounds 8 ounces. The mother asks if the baby is gaining enough weight. What response should the nurse offer?
- A. Your baby is gaining weight right on schedule
- B. What food does your baby usually eat in a normal day?
- C. The baby is below the normal percentile for weight gain
- D. What was the baby's weight at the last well-baby check-up?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your baby is gaining weight right on schedule.' Tripling of birth weight by 6 months is a normal growth pattern in infants, indicating appropriate weight gain and development. Choice B is unrelated to the question as it focuses on the baby's diet rather than addressing the weight gain concern. Choice C is incorrect as tripling the birth weight is considered a healthy growth pattern, not below normal percentile. Choice D is irrelevant to the mother's question about the adequacy of weight gain.
5. A client who had a gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) evacuated 2 days ago is being... What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Teach the client about the use of a home pregnancy test.
- B. Schedule weekly home visits to draw hCG values.
- C. Schedule a 5-week follow-up with the healthcare provider.
- D. Begin chemotherapy administration during the first home visit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement is to schedule weekly home visits to draw hCG values. Monitoring hCG levels is crucial in detecting potential complications like choriocarcinoma following GTD evacuation. Teaching about home pregnancy tests (Choice A) may not be as immediate and critical as monitoring hCG levels. A 5-week follow-up appointment (Choice C) may be too delayed for close monitoring. Initiating chemotherapy (Choice D) without appropriate hCG monitoring and evaluation is not recommended as the first-line intervention.
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