HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. The nurse is caring for a client with Addison's disease. The client exhibits signs of hypotension, dehydration, and confusion. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications?
- A. Insulin
- B. Hydrocortisone
- C. Levothyroxine
- D. Methimazole
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In Addison's disease, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol. Hydrocortisone is a glucocorticoid medication that is used to replace deficient cortisol levels in patients with Addison's disease. It helps stabilize blood pressure and fluid balance. Insulin (Choice A) is used to manage diabetes, not Addison's disease. Levothyroxine (Choice C) is a thyroid hormone replacement used to treat hypothyroidism, not Addison's disease. Methimazole (Choice D) is used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism, not Addison's disease.
2. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor in a client with Cushing's syndrome?
- A. Blood glucose levels
- B. Serum calcium levels
- C. Serum potassium levels
- D. Serum sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood glucose levels. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol in the body which leads to increased blood glucose levels due to its effect on glucose metabolism. Elevated blood glucose levels are a common finding in individuals with Cushing's syndrome. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial as it helps in assessing and managing hyperglycemia in these patients. Choice B, serum calcium levels, is not typically a priority in monitoring for Cushing's syndrome. While abnormalities in calcium levels can occur in some endocrine disorders, hypercalcemia is not a hallmark of Cushing's syndrome. Choice C, serum potassium levels, and Choice D, serum sodium levels, are not directly associated with Cushing's syndrome. While electrolyte imbalances can occur in various conditions, they are not specifically linked to Cushing's syndrome as blood glucose levels are.
3. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:
- A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
- B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
- C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
- D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.
4. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?
- A. Initiate insulin therapy.
- B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
- C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
- D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.
5. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:
- A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
- B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
- C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
- D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.
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