Nursing Elites

1. When a male Korean-American client looks away when asked by the nurse to describe his problem, what is the best initial nursing action?

• A. Ask for assistance from social services to find a Korean interpreter.
• B. Establish indirect eye contact with the client.
• C. Allow several minutes for the client to respond.
• D. Repeat the question using simpler language.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the best initial nursing action is to allow several minutes for the client to respond. This approach respects the cultural norms of the client, as in some cultures, direct eye contact may be perceived as disrespectful or intrusive. By giving the client time to gather his thoughts and respond at his own pace, the nurse promotes effective communication and demonstrates cultural sensitivity. Asking for assistance from social services to find a Korean interpreter (Choice A) may be necessary for further communication but is not the best initial action. Establishing indirect eye contact (Choice B) may still make the client uncomfortable. Repeating the question using simpler language (Choice D) may not address the underlying cultural aspect affecting the client's response.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
• D. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial to evaluate kidney function and fluid balance. Elevated creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which is common in heart failure due to decreased cardiac output and renal perfusion. Serum sodium levels (choice A) are important but are more closely associated with fluid balance and heart failure exacerbation. Serum potassium (choice B) is also important to monitor, but it is more closely linked to cardiac arrhythmias rather than kidney function. Serum glucose levels (choice D) are significant but are not the priority for monitoring in left-sided heart failure.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.

4. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit, screaming 'THE BABY IS COMING.' Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Observe the perineum
• B. Prepare the delivery room
• C. Call the obstetrician
• D. Administer pain relief

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing the perineum is the priority action for the nurse in this situation. It allows the nurse to assess the stage of labor, determine the urgency of the situation, and provide immediate assistance if the baby is indeed about to be delivered. Preparing the delivery room and calling the obstetrician can follow once the nurse has assessed the situation. Administering pain relief may not be the immediate priority when the baby is coming.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Inspiratory crackles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Use of accessory muscles. In a client with COPD and pneumonia, the use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further deterioration of the respiratory status. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 90%, though low, may not require immediate intervention as it is above the typical threshold for initiating supplemental oxygen. Choice B, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, falls within the normal range for an adult and may not be an immediate cause for concern. Choice D, inspiratory crackles, are indicative of fluid in the lungs but may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs like decreased oxygen saturation or increased respiratory distress.

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