Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a recent MI?

• A. Elevated troponin levels
• B. Increased white blood cell count
• C. Increased lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
• D. Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels increase within hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days. White blood cell count, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and C-reactive protein (CRP) are not specific markers for MI. An increased white blood cell count may indicate inflammation or infection, increased LDH levels can be seen in various conditions like liver disease or muscle injury, and elevated CRP is a general marker of inflammation rather than specific to MI.

2. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

• A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
• B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
• C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
• D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

3. A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions are most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan?

• A. Teach signs of infection
• B. Teach tracheal suctioning techniques
• C. Educate on humidifying air
• D. Discuss the use of a speaking valve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach tracheal suctioning techniques. Tracheal suctioning is crucial for maintaining a clear airway in clients with a tracheostomy. Without proper suctioning, secretions can accumulate and cause airway obstruction or respiratory infections. Educating the client on how to perform suctioning safely is a priority for discharge planning. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of tracheostomy care, but teaching tracheal suctioning techniques takes precedence due to its direct impact on airway patency and preventing complications.

4. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What symptom indicates that the dosage may need adjustment?

• A. Increased appetite and weight gain.
• B. Increased sensitivity to cold and dry skin.
• C. Increased heart palpitations and sweating.
• D. Increased shortness of breath and rapid heart rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased sensitivity to cold and dry skin may indicate that the dosage of levothyroxine is too low, requiring adjustment. This symptom is typical of hypothyroidism when the body's metabolism slows down, leading to feeling cold and having dry skin. Choices A, C, and D present symptoms more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism, where the body is in a state of overactivity, leading to weight loss, increased heart rate, and sweating. Therefore, these symptoms would not indicate the need for dosage adjustment in a client with hypothyroidism.

5. A client with heart failure receiving furosemide develops muscle weakness. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer potassium supplements as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client’s potassium levels.
• C. Instruct the client to increase their salt intake.
• D. Discontinue the furosemide.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness in a client receiving furosemide (a diuretic) is often a sign of hypokalemia, as furosemide increases potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to identify and address any imbalances and prevent complications such as arrhythmias. Administering potassium supplements without monitoring the levels can lead to hyperkalemia, which has its own set of serious complications. Instructing the client to increase salt intake is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the underlying electrolyte imbalance. Discontinuing furosemide abruptly can worsen heart failure symptoms; therefore, monitoring potassium levels and adjusting the treatment accordingly is the most appropriate action.

Similar Questions