HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Monitor the client's ammonia levels.
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
- C. Monitor the client's potassium levels.
- D. Monitor the client's level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's level of consciousness. Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring the level of consciousness helps assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in improving the client's condition. Monitoring ammonia levels (choice A) is important, but assessing the client's response to therapy through their level of consciousness is more crucial. Blood glucose levels (choice B) and potassium levels (choice C) are not directly related to lactulose therapy for cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.
2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease presents with increased swelling and shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
- B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- D. Reposition the client to improve lung expansion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a diuretic as prescribed. In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing increased swelling and shortness of breath, the priority action is to address fluid retention. Administering a diuretic helps reduce fluid overload, alleviate symptoms, and prevent complications associated with fluid buildup. Option A is not the priority in this situation as addressing fluid retention takes precedence over providing oxygen. While monitoring vital signs is important, it is secondary to addressing the underlying cause of symptoms. Repositioning the client may help with comfort but does not directly address the fluid overload seen in chronic kidney disease.
3. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
- D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.
4. What assessment is most important for the nurse to perform for a client with dehydration receiving IV fluids?
- A. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels.
- B. Check the client’s urine output hourly.
- C. Assess the client’s skin turgor regularly.
- D. Monitor the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client’s electrolyte levels. When a client is receiving IV fluids for dehydration, it is crucial to assess their electrolyte levels regularly. Dehydration can lead to imbalances in electrolytes, especially sodium and potassium, which are essential for maintaining fluid balance and proper organ function. Checking urine output (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels. Assessing skin turgor (Choice C) is an indirect method of assessing dehydration but does not provide specific information about electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring blood pressure (Choice D) is important but not the most critical assessment in this scenario as electrolyte imbalances can have a more direct impact on the client's condition.
5. The healthcare provider is performing a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted. Which finding would call for immediate action by the healthcare provider?
- A. Breath sounds are audible bilaterally
- B. Mist is visible in the T-piece
- C. Pulse oximetry of 88
- D. Client is unable to verbalize
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88 indicates hypoxia, which is a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for the client's well-being. Choices A and B are normal findings after endotracheal intubation. Hearing bilateral breath sounds and seeing mist in the T-piece indicate proper functioning of the endotracheal tube. While choice D may indicate an issue with speaking due to the endotracheal tube, it is not as critical as the hypoxia indicated by the low pulse oximetry reading.
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