Nursing Elites

1. A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment because she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to take vital signs and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care.
• B. Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client.
• C. Instruct the UAP that a standard mask is sufficient for the provision of care for the assigned client.
• D. Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. For droplet precautions, such as in the case of pertussis, a standard face mask is sufficient for protection. Particulate filter masks are required for airborne precautions, not for droplet precautions. Therefore, the UAP can proceed with taking the vital signs using a standard mask without the need for a particulate filter mask. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to get fitted for a particulate filter mask before providing care in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as fitting for a particulate filter mask is not necessary for droplet precautions. Choice D is also incorrect because determining which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks is not relevant to the UAP's situation with the client on droplet precautions. It is important for healthcare workers to understand the appropriate use of personal protective equipment based on the type of precautions in place to provide safe and effective care to clients.

2. The client has a chest tube. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure the chest tube remains unclamped at all times.
• B. Empty the chest tube every 2 hours.
• C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the chest.
• D. Assess for subcutaneous emphysema.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping the drainage system below the level of the chest (C) is crucial to ensure proper drainage and prevent backflow of air or fluid into the chest cavity. This position helps maintain the integrity of the closed drainage system. Ensuring the chest tube remains unclamped at all times (A) allows for continuous drainage. Emptying the chest tube (B) should be done as needed, not routinely every 2 hours. Assessing for subcutaneous emphysema (D) is important but not the most critical action in this scenario.

3. A client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break to smoke a cigarette outside and states, 'I want to go outside now and smoke. It takes forever to get anything done here!' Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to use a nicotine patch.
• B. Reassure the client that it is almost time for another break.
• C. Have the client leave the unit with another staff member.
• D. Review the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client becomes angry while waiting for a supervised break, it is essential to address their concerns effectively. Reviewing the schedule of outdoor breaks with the client provides concrete information, helps manage the client's expectations, and may alleviate their frustration. This intervention promotes transparency and empowers the client by clarifying the timing of their desired break, fostering a therapeutic and collaborative nurse-client relationship. Encouraging the client to use a nicotine patch (Choice A) does not address the client's immediate frustration with the break schedule. Reassuring the client about another break (Choice B) may temporarily placate them but does not address the underlying issue. Having the client leave the unit with another staff member (Choice C) may not be feasible or appropriate at that moment and does not address the client's concerns.

4. A healthcare professional is working in an occupational health clinic when an employee walks in and states that he was struck by lightning while working in a truck. The client is alert but reports feeling faint. Which assessment will the healthcare professional perform first?

• A. Pulse characteristics
• B. Open airway
• C. Entrance and exit wounds
• D. Cervical spine injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a person is struck by lightning, it can cause an electrical shock that may affect the heart rhythm. Therefore, assessing pulse characteristics is crucial as lightning can act as a natural defibrillator. Monitoring the pulse rate and regularity will help determine if there are any cardiac abnormalities that need immediate attention. Open airway, entrance and exit wounds, and cervical spine injury assessments are also important but assessing pulse characteristics takes precedence in this situation to address potential cardiac issues.

5. The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?

• A. Perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
• B. Decrease the client's fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.
• C. Massage the client's legs to reduce the occurrence of embolisms.
• D. Turn the client from side to back every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing range-of-motion exercises is essential in preventing contractures, which are common complications of immobility. These exercises help maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength, reducing the risk of contractures that can lead to functional limitations or pain for the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fluid intake does not prevent immobility complications, but it can lead to dehydration. Massaging the client's legs does not directly address the prevention of immobility complications like contractures. Turning the client from side to back every shift is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address complications of immobility like contractures.

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